UPSC Examination 2011, UPSC Syllabus, UPSC Notification 2011 | UPSC Result

Special Class Railway Apprentices (SCRA) Exam, 2011

2011-03-29T06:32:00.000+05:30

SCRA

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Special Class Railway Apprentices’ Examination, 2011 on July 31, 2011 for recruitment to the Special Class Apprentices in the Mechanical Department of Indian Railways. The examination will be held at various centres across the country.

Candidates can apply Online using the link www.upsconline.nic.in. Detailed instructions for filling up on line applications are available on the website.

All Online applications can be filled up to April 25, 2011 till 11.59 p.m. after which the link will be disabled. The Candidates are strongly advised to apply Online well in time without waiting for last date for submission of Online application.

Candidates, who wish to apply off-line, must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix-III of the Notice published in Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated 26.3.2011) throughout the country.

The last date for all offline applications to reach UPSC, either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier is April 25, 2011. However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote specified areas, the last date for receipt of application by post/speed post only (not by hand or by courier) is May 2, 2011.

In case of any difficulty in obtaining application forms from the designated HPOs/Pos, the candidates should contact the concerned Post Master or UPSC’s “FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL” over Telephone no.011-23389366/Fax No.011-23387310.

For details regarding eligibility conditions, syllabus and scheme of the examination, centers of examination, guidelines for filling up application form etc. aspirants must consult the detailed notice of the examination published in the Employment News/Rozgar Samachar dated March 26, 2011. They can also visit UPSC website www.upsc.gov.in.

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over telephone no.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 during working hours.

CSAT Syllabus

2010-10-19T14:22:00.001+05:30

UPSC Aptitude Test Syllabus

S.No	Civil Services Preliminary Examination	Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT)
1	Two Objective Papers with one General Studies and One Optional out of the 23 subjects given by UPSC	Two Objective Papers with one General Studies and One General Aptitude Paper
2	More weightage for optional with 300 marks for Optional subject and only 150 marks for General Studies	Equal weightage for both General Studies as well as General Aptitude paper. Both carrying equal marks
3	Advantageous for people who completed masters degree and having a grip on Academic Subject	Equally good for All kinds of graduates creating a level play ground.
4	No Transparency in terms of Assessment and disclosure of Preliminary marks	Complete Transparency in terms of disclosure of marks
5	High amount of disparity between one optional subject and the other, creating sense of biasedness on few particular optional subject.	No disparity, Equal game to be played by all in a equal platform
6	Easy for Candidates who studied in high caliber institutes compared to a student with Rural background.	All the students have equal opportunity, since everyone has to prepare in similar patterns.
7	High Competition due to people cramming with the subject knowledge in Optional.	Infuses fresh blood in the examination arena such that all the people have to prepare a fresh.

Introduction of Aptitude paper will be the major change after the introduction of Negative marking pattern. UPSC was talking about the System of Online Application Procedure (SOAP) that was successfully implemented in the Indian Forest Service Examination .

Aptitude tests are designed to assess your logical reasoning or thinking performance. They consist of multiple-choice questions and are administered under exam conditions. They are strictly timed. UPSC conducts various examinations in any given year and they name those test papers with various names such as General Studies in Civil Service, General Ability in Combined Medical Exam, General Knowledge in Combined Defence Service, General Ability and Intelligence in Central Police Force Exam. But they have never used the nomenclature General Aptitude; this is the first time UPSC going to have an Aptitude test. Attempting maximum question under exam condition in the given time is the key for success in a normal Aptitude test.

The most common Aptitude test pattern are

Verbal Aptitude,
Quantitative Aptitude,
Abstract Reasoning,
Spatial Reasoning,
Mechanical Reasoning,
Data Checking,
Fault Diagnosis.

Is the Aptitude Test a Combination of Public Administration, Psychology, Sociology and Anthropology
NO, This is a General Aptitude test and no subject will influence or be infused in this paper. May be the above combination of professionals like Administrators, Psychologist and others can be used to set a question paper. But for sure the above-mentioned subjects (Theoretical and Purely Subjective) will not play a part in the Aptitude test.

CSAT will not only enable us to choose civil servants with right aptitudes but also end the use of scaling system, a matter of concern to some.

Related: CSAT Syllabus, CSAT 2011, CSAT

Combined Medical Services (CMS) Exam

2010-09-16T09:47:00.003+05:30

CMS Exam 2011

A combined examination for recruitment to the services and posts mentioned in para 2 below will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on the 16th January, 2011 in accordance with the Rules published by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (Dept. of Health) in the Gazette of India dated the 11th September, 2010.
The Services/Posts to which recruitment is to be made and the approximate number of vacancies to be filled are given below :-

(i)	Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in the Railways.	250
(ii)	Assistant Divisional Medical Officer in Indian Ordnance Factories Health Service.	20
(iii)	Junior Scale Posts in Central Health Services.	100
(iv)	Medical Officers in the Municipal Corporation of Delhi.	13
(v)	General Duty Medical Officer in New Delhi Municipal Council	04

CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION:
The Candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all eligibility condition for admition to examination. Their admission to all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions

Mere issue of admission certificate to the candidate will not imply that his/her candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.

Commission take up verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test.

HOW TO APPLY:

(a) Candidates who wish to apply Online can do so by using the link http://www.upsconline.nic.in. Detailed instructions for filling up online applications are available on the above mentioned website.

(b) Candidates are advised to read carefully the "Instructions for filling up the Offline Application Form" given in Appendix-2 (A) and Instructions for Online Applications given in Appendix 2 (B) of this notice.

(c) Candidates who wish to apply Offline must apply in the Common Application form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/Post Offices (specified in Appendix III of the Notice) throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 20/- (Rupees Twenty only). Each such Form can be used only once and only for one examination.

In case of any difficulty in obtaining Application Forms from the designated HPOs/POs, the candidates should immediately contact the concerned post Master or UPSC's "FORMS SUPPLY MONITORING CELL" over Telephone No. 011-23389366/FAX No. 011-23387310.

LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS:

(a) Online: The online Applications can be filled upto 11th October 2010 till 11.59 PM after which the link will be disabled.

(b) Offline:

All offline applications must reach the "Controller of Examinations, Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by Courier, on or before the 11th October 2010.

Candidates should note that applications will be received by hand, only one at a time, at the designated counter(s) and not in bulk, till 5 PM only.

However, in respect of candidates residing abroad or in certain remote localities specified in para 6 of this Notice the last date for receipt of application by Post/Speed Post only (not by Hand or by Courier) is 18th October 2010.

PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER :

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answer marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Paper.

FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES :

In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their applications, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC's Facilitation Counter near gate 'C' of its campus in person or over Telephone No. 011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10.00 hrs and 17.00 hrs.

MOBILE PHONES BANNED :

(a) Mobile phones, pagers or any other communication devices are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not be bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/pagers to the venue of the examination, as arrangement for safekeeping cannot be assured.

7. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same cannot be assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

More at http://www.upsc.gov.in/exams/notifications/cms2011/ntf-index.htm

Frontline Magazine Download : August 14 - 27, 2010

2010-08-16T10:37:00.000+05:30

VOL.27 :: NO.17 :: August 14 - 27, 2010

COVER STORY (Pages: 29 :: File Size: 2.64 MB)

Fake encounters

NATIONAL (Pages: 36 :: File Size: 1.15 MB)

DIPLOMACY: Visitor from Myanmar
SOCIAL ISSUES: For a law to check honour killings
WEST BENGAL : Resisting Maoists
ASSAM : Assam Accord at 25
Interview: P.K. Mahanta
INTERVIEW: Of poetry and tigers: Ruth Padel, British writer
PUBLIC HEALTH: Karnataka: Packaged food and malnutrition
FOOD SECURITY: Tackling hunger
Interview: Aruna Roy
OBITUARY
- K.M. Mathew
- Suraj Bhan
JAMMU & KASHMIR
- Valley on fire
- Interview: Mehbooba Mufti
- Interview: Mirwaiz Muhammad Umar Farooq
- Interview: Ali Mohammad Sagar
- Interview: Syed Ali Shah Geelani

INTERNATIONAL (Pages: 25 :: File Size: 1.38 MB)

AFGHANISTAN : WikiLeaks documents
UNITED STATES: In denial mode
COLOMBIA-VENEZUELA: War of nerves
CAMBODIA : Conviction of a Khmer rouge leader
UPDATE: Jacob Zuma to abolish six monarchies
TRAVEL: France : Two towns that are the toast of the art world

FOCUS (Pages: 14 :: File Size: 1.90 MB)

KARNATAKA STATE POLICE DEPARTMENT
- Pride in policing
- Interview: Home Minister V.S. Acharya
EDUCATION IN CHITRADURGA AND DAVANAGERE
- Growth and excellence

COLUMN (Pages: 11 :: File Size: 3.56 MB)

Bhaskar Ghose: When profit rules
R.K. Raghavan: Guantanamo ’s future
C.P. Chandrasekhar: Threat to PDS
Jayati Ghosh: Celebrating Chopin
Praful Bidwai: Going gets tough

BOOKS (Pages: 15 :: File Size: 465 KB)

LETTERS (Page: 1 :: File Size: 32 KB)

Staff Selection Commission Recruitment August 2010

2010-08-16T10:36:00.000+05:30

ADVERTISEMENT NO. ER-02/2010 FILE NO. 11/1/2009-RECTT

Applications are invited from Citizens of India under Para-3 of this Notice, for the following Group `C` Selection Posts. Descriptions of posts are mentioned at Para-1 and other terms and conditions are mentioned at Para-4 to Para-20 of this Notice. Willing applicants under Para-3 of this Notice are advised to go through all parameters under different Paras and Sub-Paras of this Notice and satisfy themselves about their suitability on Age-limit and Essential Qualification for the posts, before applying.

Last date of receipt of application form : 06.09.2010

1. Scientific Assistant-I
Number of vacancies : 01

PSL : Rs.5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.2800/-, (PB-1)
AGE : 18-25 years (Age relaxation is admissible as per Instructions).
E.Q. : B. Sc. (Agriculture)

2. Senior Scientific Assistant-III
Number of vacancies : 07

AGE : 18- 25 years. (Age relaxation is admissible as per Instructions).
PSL : Rs.9300 – 34800/-, Grade Pay Rs.4200/-, (PB-2)
E.Q. : B. Sc. (Agriculture)

3. Scientific Officer-I
Number of vacancies : 02

AGE : 18 to 25 years. (Age relaxation is admissible as per Instructions).
PSL : Rs.5200 – 20200/-, Grade Pay Rs.2000/-, (PB-1)
E.Q. : Intermediate with Science in Zoology/Botany/Agriculture or 10+2 class pass with Science (with Zoology/Botany/ Agriculture) from a recognized University/Board or equivalent.

4. Senior Library and Information Assistant
Number of vacancies : 01

AGE : 18 to 30 years (Age relaxation is admissible as per Instructions)
PSL : Rs.9300 – 34800/-, Grade Pay Rs.4200/-, (PB-2)
E.Q. : (i) Graduate of any recognized university, (ii) Degree in Library Science of a recognized university.

Free:

FEE PAYABLE: Rs. 50/- (Rupees fifty only).

Note : Candidates may please note that non-cancellation of stamps from the concerned Post Office in the manner indicated above, may lead to rejection of his/her application form, so it is in the interest of candidates that they get the CRFS cancelled from the concerned Post Offices. Fee paid by wrong mode of payment of fee i.e. by IPO, Cash, Bank Draft or Pay Order, will NOT be accepted.

SELECTION PROCEDURES:

A. PRELIMINARY SELECTION:
i. Usually, the selection to the posts will be made on the basis of an Interview/ Personality Test/ Skill Test. Mere fulfilling of minimum prescribed qualifications etc. will not entitle a applicant to be called for the Interview/ Personality Test/ Skill Test. Commission may make a preliminary selection of applicants on the basis of their educational qualifications, academic records, percentage of marks, etc., and the applicants thus selected will be required to undergo an Interview/ Personality Test/ Skill Test.

ii. The Commission, may at its discretion, decide to hold a Proficiency Test in appropriate subject for any of the categories of posts or to make a screening of applicants on the basis of percentage of marks on the EQ, where it is felt necessary, before the applicants are called for Interview/Personality Test/ Skill Test/Proficiency Test. The Proficiency Test would be in the relevant subject, which will be intimated to the applicants in due course of time.

iii. The Commission may at its discretion, waive holding of Proficiency Test in those categories of posts where a Proficiency Test has been prescribed. NOTE : ``The Interview/Personality Test is structured in such a manner that the applicants` interests, knowledge, various traits, aptitude, suitability etc. are probed, among other things, through academic qualifications, extracurricular activities, general awareness/knowledge, depth of knowledge of the subject studied on the level of ‘Essential Qualification’ for the post, communicative skill and personality etc.``

B. SCREENING TEST:
i. The Commission may, at its discretion decide to hold a screening test for any of the categories where it is felt necessary before Interview/Personality Test/ Proficiency Test/Skill Test.
ii. The Commission may, at its discretion, where it is felt necessary, without holding Screening Test may screen the applicants by the method of short listing on the basis of percentage of marks on the prescribed Essential Qualification for the post. iii. Only such of the applicants who qualify in the screening test or otherwise at the standard fixed by the Commission at their discretion would be eligible for being called for the Interview/Personality Test/ Proficiency Test/Skill Test.

Last date of receipt of application form : 06.09.2010

CLICK HERE FOR COMPLETE DETAILS

Courtesy: sscer.org

Download Frontline Magazine Dated : July 17 - 30

2010-07-19T13:27:00.000+05:30

VOL.27 :: NO.15 :: July 17 - 30, 2010

COVER STORY (Pages: 29 :: File Size: 3.56 MB)

Price burden

NATIONAL (Pages: 34 :: File Size: 2.59 MB)

JAMMU & KASHMIR: Valley of unrest
Stones of protest
KERALA: Coca-Cola: Plachimada’s claims
SOCIAL ISSUES: Death for love
EVENTS: Celebrating Tamil
Interview: Daniel Jeyaraj
Interview: K. Sivathambi
ENVIRONMENT: Green India mission
BHOPAL GAS DISASTER: Revenge of memory
CLIMATE CHANGE: Carbon budget for fixing responsibility

INTERNATIONAL (Pages: 28 :: File Size: 2.80 MB)

TURKEY : New foreign policy dynamics
AFGHANISTAN : New U.S. commander takes charge of war against Taliban
UNITED STATES: The ‘right’ war gone wrong
AUSTRALIA : A coup in Canberra
RWANDA : The plot thickens
ARCHITECTURE: A love affair with bamboo
UPDATE: Partners rebuff BP
TENNIS: Wimbledon : Nadal’s coronation

FOCUS (Pages: 15 :: File Size: 3.60 MB)

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA
- Marching ahead
- Firmly in the saddle

EDUCATION IN BANGALORE
- Pursuit of excellence

COLUMN (Pages: 8 :: File Size: 478 KB)

Bhaskar Ghose: Price of progress
Praful Bidwai: Terminal folly
R.K. Raghavan: Right to own guns
Jayati Ghosh: Not all fun & games

BOOKS (Pages: 3 :: File Size: 203 KB)

LETTERS (Page: 1 :: File Size: 35.30 KB)

(Pages: 134 :: File Size: 15.30 MB)

Teachers and Librarian Job Vacancies in Delhi Subordinate SSB

2010-07-14T13:44:00.001+05:30

Teachers and Librarian Job Vacancies in Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board : 2010

1. Post Graduate Teacher in Directorate of Education

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4800
Age Limit : Below 36 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

2. Trained Graduate Teacher in Directorate of Education

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4600
Age Limit : Below 32 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

3. Assistant Teacher (Nursery) Female in MCD

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Age Limit : Below 32 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

Combined Examination for the Various Posts of Librarian

1. Librarian in Directorate of Education

Pay Scale : Rs. 5500- 9000/- (prerevised)
Age Limit : Not Exceeding 32 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

2. Library & Information Assistant in Delhi Public Library

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Age Limit : 30 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

3. Library & Information Assistant (Tech) in Delhi Public Library

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Age Limit : 30 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

4. Library Assistant (Grade – III) in Institute of Human Behaviour and Allied Sciences

Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 – 34800 + Grade Pay Rs. 4200
Age Limit : 18-30 Years (Relaxable as per rules)

Last date of receipt of application form : 30.07.2010

Click Here For Detailed Notification

UPSC Mains Online Test Series

2010-07-14T13:32:00.001+05:30

UPSC Mains 2010 : Online Test Series

General Studies Test Series

TEST SERIES SCHEDULE FOR GENERAL STUDIES:

	DATE	TIME	TOPIC
1.	18-07-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	INDIAN POLITY
2.	25-07-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	SOCIAL NATIONAL ISSUES
3.	01-08-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	MODERN HISTORY
4.	08-08-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	INDIA’S ECONOMIC INTERACTION WITH WORLD
5.	14-08-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
6.	22-08-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	INDIAN ECONOMY
7.	29-08-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
8.	05-09-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	STATISTICS & DATA INTERPRETATIONS
9.	12-09-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	INDIAN POLITY & SOCIAL NATIONAL ISSUES
10.	19-09-2010	5:00PM TO 8:00PM	IAS MAIN (MOCK) EXAM

NOTE : CANDIDATES SHALL HAVE STRUCTURED MODEL ANSWERS OF THE QUESTION PAPER.

General Studies Test Series Part - 1

Indian Polity

Q.1) Do you agree with the statement that some recent decisions of the Supreme Court may have far reaching impact on Indian society and culture? Put your views. (250 words).

Q.2) Rajya sabha become backdoor entry into legislature and government. Examine the statement critically. (200 words).

Q.3) “Let the Governors complete their term”. Explain.

Social National Issues.

Q.1) What Constitutional and extra constitutional options are available with the Union government to tackle Naxalites and Maoists effectively? Examine and suggest measures. (250 words).

Q.2) “Police reforms won’t work without Judicial and legislative reforms”. Comment. (200 words).

Q.3) What reasons, do you think ,are responsible for domestic violence and juvenile delinquency in India? Are acts sufficient to control them? Put your views.

Science And Technology

Q.1) Energy policy has become core issue in diplomacy of India today. How do you react? (250 words).

Q.2) What are GM crops? Do you agree that accepting or non accepting, is more political issue than technical? Discuss. (200 words).

Q.3) “Banning narco-analysis and brain mapping is certainly based on violation of right to life and personal liberty”. Explain with reference to technical procedures involved their in. (250 words).

Indian Geography

Q.1) “Majority of rivers water dams in India generate more disputes than hydroelectricity”. Examine the reasons and suggest measures. (250 words).

Q.2) “Global warming has some positive impacts also”. Comment. (200 words).

Q.3) Caste based census may become political tool of vote bank politics than social tool of development. Answer with arguments. (200 words).

Indian Economy.

Q.1) Indian farmers get defeated in case of over production and under production either. What economic and constitution measures should be taken to win the situation? Analyse. (250 words).

Q.2) Inflation and anti-inflationary measures are not only economic issues. Do you agree? Discuss. (200 words).

Q.3) Petroleum is blood of economy and Indian economy is a kind of patient, whose survival mostly depends on external blood salers. Critically examine the statement. (250 words).

Q.4) Planning is basically economic activity but it has become political activity in India. How far do you agree? Put your views. (200 words).

Q.5) All the rounds of W.T.O. are revolving around Doha round. Comment. (150 words).

International

Q.1) Indian diplomacy is mixed bag of success and failures. Comment with reference to Indo-US relations. (250 words).

Questions of the GS Test Series are open to all. If you want to evaluate your answers with Experts (Teachers).

Questions of the GS Test Series are open to all.
If you want to evaluate your answers with Experts (Teachers)

Public Administration Test Series
Geography Test Series

UPSC | Advertisement No. 13/2010

2010-07-10T21:56:00.000+05:30

Advertisement No. 13/2010.

Union Public Service Commission, UPSC, invites application for the following posts:

Agriculture Ministry:

Deputy Agricultural Marketing Adviser (Group -III) (Oil & Fats) in Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 7600
Age: 50 years

Chief Engineers, Gr. I, Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries, Ministry of Agriculture.: 03 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 40 years

Civil Aviation Ministry:

Director of Flying Training in the Office of the Director General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation: 01 Post

Pay: 37400-67000 + GP Rs. 8700
Age: 45 years

Defence Ministry:

Sr. Scientific Officer, Grade-I (Military Explosives) in DGQA, Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, Defence Quality Assurance Service.: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 10000-15200
Age: 43 years

Sr. Scientific Officers, Grade-I (Electronics) in DGQA, Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, Defence Quality Assurance Service.: 04 Posts

Pay: Rs. 10000-15200

Age: 43 years

Sr. Scientific Officers, Grade-I (Metallurgy) in DGQA, Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence, Defence Quality Assurance Service.: 03 Posts

Pay: Rs. 10000-15200

Age: 43 years

Sr. Scientific Officers, Grade-I (Egineering) in the Directorate General of Quality Assurance, Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence: 05 Posts

Pay: Rs. 10000-15200

Age: 40 years

Jr. Works Managers (Civil) in Ordnance Factory Board, Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence. Civilian in Defence Service: 03 Posts

Pay: Rs. 9300-34800 + GP Rs. 4600
Age: 21-30 years

Assistant Defence Estates Officers, Directorate General Defence Estates, Ministry of Defence: 11 Posts

Pay: Rs. 9300-34800 + GP Rs. 4600
Age: 30 years

Health & F.W. Ministry:

Assistant Professors (Plastic Surgery), Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Central Health Service, Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre.: 02 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Assistant Professors (Public Health), Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Central Health Service, Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre.: 02 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 48 years

Specialist, Grade-II (Anaesthesia), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Central Health Service Non-Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Specialist, Grade-II (Psychiatry), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Central Health Service Non-Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Specialist, Grade-II (Obstetrics & Gynaecology), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Central Health Service Non-Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre: 08 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Specialist, Grade-II (Obstetrics & Gynaecology), Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Central Health Service Non-Teaching Specialist Sub-Cadre: 02 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Textiles Ministry:

Assistant Directors, Gr. II, (Production and Development) redesignated as Assistant Director, Grade-II (Technical) in the Office of the Textile Commissioner, Ministry of Textiles: 02 Posts

Pay: Rs. 9300-34800 + GP Rs. 4600
Age: 35 years

Water Resources Ministry:

Research Officers (Civil Engineering) in Central Water & Power Research Station, Khadakwasla, Pune, Ministry of Water Resources: 15 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 5400
Age: 35 years

Research Officers (Scientific Geophysics) in Central Water & Power Research Station, Khadakwasla, Pune, Ministry of Water Resources: 02 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 5400
Age: 35 years

Research Officers (Mechanical Engineering) in Central Water & Power Station, Pune, Ministry of Water Resources: 03 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 5400
Age: 35 years

Chandigarh Administration:

Professor (Community Medicine) in Govt. Medical College & Hospital, Chandigarh, Department of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh Administration: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 37400-67000 + GP Rs. 10000
Age: 50 years

Sr. Lecturer (Immuno Haematology & Blood Transfusion) in Govt. Medical College & Hospital, Chandigarh, Department of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh Administration: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 37400-67000 + GP Rs. 8600

Age: 50 years

Puducherry Govt.

Specialist, Grade-II (Jr. Scale) In Nuclear Medicine, Health Sectt., Government of Puducherry: 01 Post

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Specialist, Grade-II (Jr. Scale) In Tuberculosis, Health Sectt., Government of Puducherry: 03 Posts

Pay: Rs. 15600-39100 + GP Rs. 6600
Age: 45 years

Last Date: 29.07.2010 (05.08.2010 for candidates from far_flung areas)

How to apply for above post :
Completed applications with enclosures should be sent

To the Secretary
Union Public Service Commission
Dholpur House,
Shahjahan Road, New Delhi - 110069

on or before 29.07.2010.

For more details of Age, Pay Scale, Qualification and other informations pleases visite website:
http://upsc.gov.in, Advertisement No. 13/2010.

Aspirants Times Magazine

2010-07-10T15:50:00.000+05:30

Download Free Digital Copy of 'Aspirants Times' Magazine Vol.16
(JUNE 2010)

File Type: PDF (use Abobe acrobat Reader)
No of Pages: 63
File Size: 1.2 MB (Zipped PDF File)

Cost: Free Digital Magazine

Important Instructions: Please note that you need to Register/Login AGAIN at the Online Store Website to Download the Magazine.
()

Follow Below Steps to Order Online:
1) Register/Login at Online Store
2) Go to this URL:

3) Click on "Add to Cart"
4) Click on "Checkout"
5) Fill the form.
6) Review Order.
7) Click "Submit Order"
8) Done.. Your will get download link and instructions, soon in your Email.

For more information see Online Store tutorial:

Feel free to send it to friends, print it or distribute without modifications.

If you face any difficulties in download, please Contact Us

Thanks all of you for downloading the Magazine.

CDAC Noida | Recruitment of Contract Engineers

2010-07-10T01:42:00.001+05:30

CDAC Noida | Recruitment of Contract Engineers

Centre For Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC)
Anusandhan Bhawan, C-56/1 Sector-62, Noida-201307

Centre For Development of Advance Computing(C-DAC) Recruits BE/B.Tech in CS/IT/E&C/M.Sc(Electronics) / MCA Candidates 2010

Centre For Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC) is a scientific society of Department of Information Technology, GOI, established with the mandate to design, develop and deploy electronics and advanced IT products and solutions. CDAC is internationally recognized for its pioneering work in the areas of High Performance Computing, Grd Computing, etc. initiatives in these areas.

The Noida centre for CDAC is looking for bright and reult oriented engineers for the following positions:

Contract Engineer/ Research Fellow-Posts-15

Pay Scale: Rs. 16000/- pm
Eligibility: BE/B.Tech in CS/IT/E&C/M.Sc. (Electronics) or MCA with Mathematics as a subject at graduation level.

Research Fellow-Posts-6

Pay Scale: Rs. 25000/- pm
Eligibility: BE/B.Tech in CS/IT/E&C/M.Sc. (Electronics)/M.Sc (CS) or MCA with Mathematics as a subject at graduation level.

Management Faculty-Posts-4

Pay Scale: Rs. 30000/- pm
Eligibility: BE/B.Tech in CS/IT/E&C/E&E or Mech. Engg. and MBA (Full Time) with specialization in Marketing/Operations/Finance.

Selection: Candidates meeting the above eligibility are required to appear in All India Online Screening Test on any between 24.7.2010 to 1.8.2010 at bengaluru, Noida, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Mohali, Chennai, etc.

Application Fee: Rs. 1000/- is payable by DD/Credit Card.

Online Registration: http://onlineexam.cdacnoida.in:8400/OnlineExamination-REC10/reg/initial.html

How To Apply: Candidates are required to apply online on or before 19.7.2010.

Last Date To Apply: 19.7.2010

Notes: Candidates awaiting the results, but have secured 60% till the last semester can also apply.

Contact Address:
Centre For Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC)
Anusandhan Bhawan, C-56/1 Sector-62, Noida-201307

BEL Probationary Engineers (PE) General Aptitude Solved Test Paper

2010-07-10T01:42:00.000+05:30

1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
(A) Revolt of 1857
(B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
(C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
(D) Quit India Movement in 1942

2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
(A) Agha Khan
(B) AjmaI Khan
(C) Hasan Imam
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
(A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
(B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was established
(C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the first time
(D) None of the above

4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-cooperation Movement
(C) Communist Movement
(D) Revolutionary Movement

5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
(A) Minimum reserve system
(B) Proportional reserve system
(C) Fixed exchange rate system
(D) Full convertibility system

6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
(A) Persons with no jobs
(B) Unemployment among house wives
(C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
(D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons can perform

7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
1. It is a progressive tax,
2. It is a direct tax.
3. It is collected by the Government.
4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given below
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1,2and3only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

8. ‘SIDBI’ has been established to
(A) Finance small scale industries
(B) Finance cottage industries
(C) Finance large scale industries
(D) Finance public sector under takings

9. Gangubai Hangal, who died a few months ago, was a?
(A) Classical singer
(B) Dancer
(C) Painter
(D) Sitar player

10. Deep Joshi has recently been given Raman Magsaysay Award in the category of?
(A) Government service
(B) Public service
(C) Community leadership
(D) Emergent leadership

11. The missing number in the following series:
5,10,13,26,29, 58, 61,…
Is?
(A) 122
(C) 128
(B) 125
(D) 131

12. If 2 jeans and 3 shirts cost Rs. 4,000 and jeans and 2 shirts cost Rs. 3,500, how much does a jeans cost?
(A) Rs. 1,500
(B) Rs 1,000
(C)Rs. 500
(D) Rs. 2,000

13. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data?
(A) chip
(B) byte
(C) bug
(D) bit

14.Assertion (A) Graphite is a good lubricant.
Reason (R) Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (A) are true but (H) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (A) is true

15. Acid rain is caused by pollution ot environment by?
(A) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(B) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

16.Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?
(A)Copper
(B) Iron
(C)Titanium
(D) Aluminum

17. The earliest coins of India were made of ?
(A)Copper
(B) Gold
(C)Lead
(D) Silver

18. The Mongols appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus during the reign of?
(A) Balban
(B) Iltutrnish
(C) Qutubuddin Aibak
(D) Razia

19. The first woman ruler of medieval India was?
(A) Chand Bibi
(B) Durgavati
(C) Noorjahan
(D) Razia

20. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place in?
(A) Malabar
(B) Marathawada
(C) Telengana
(D) Vidarbha

21. Which part of the Constitutions of India has been described as the:
Soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Directive principles of State policy
(B) Fundamental rights
(C) Preamble
(D) Right to constitutional remedies

22. The first state to implement the Panchayati Raj System in India was?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Karnataka

23. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Any High Court
(D) All of the above

24. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He holds office at the pleasure of the President.
3. The executive power of the: State vests in him.
4. Normally he holds office for five years.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A) l and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 4
(D) All the four

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A)Ahmedabad—Sabarmati
(B) Lucknow —Gomti
(C) Bhubaneshwar—Mahanadi
(D) Ujjain-Shipra

26.Dilwara Jain temple is situated at?
(A)Palitana
(B) Mount Abu
(C)Sonagiri
(D) Girinarji

27. Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
(A) Kiel Canal
(B) Panama Canal
(C) Soo Canal
(D) Suez Canal

28. Where was the battle of Plassey fought?
(A)Karnal
(B) Haldighati
(C)Mysore
(D) Bengal

29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
(A)Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C)C. V. Raman
(D)Jawahar Lal Nehru

30.. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857?
(A) Cartridge containing fat
(B) Frustration in soldiers
(C) Failure of British Government
(D) Administrative research

31.. Which of the following is UHF?
(A) 40MHz
(C) 400 KHz
(B) 400 MHz
(D) 40 KHz

32.. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be?
(A)mp
(B) ppm
(C) pp/m
(D) pp/2m

33. SI . unit of power is ‘watt. It is equivalent to which of the follow ing?
(A) Kgms-2
(B)Kgm-2s-2
(C) Kgm-2s-3
(D) None of these

34. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs?
(A) Brien Lara
(B) Sanat Jaysurya
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virendra Sehwag

35. Which is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

36. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
(B) Liyaquat AIi Khan
(C) Gaffar Khan
(D) Benazir Bhutto

37. Who invented television?
(A)J. L. Baird
(B) Lawrance -
(C) Frederick Trechithic
(D) King Gillette

38. Who invented wireless?
(A)Marconi
(B)Charles Caterin
(C)George Cayley
(D)Zenobe Gramme

39 Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals?
(A) Alert army
(B) Large army
(C) Political monopoly
(D) Guerilla warfare

40. Find out the next term of the series?
1,2,4,7,11,………
(A)16
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 4

41. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city?

(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajrner
(D) Delhi

42. Who wrote the Meghdoot?
(A)Kalidas
(B) Vatsyayan
(C) Chanakya
(D) Premchand

43. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta?
(A)Saket
(B) Urvashi
(C) Prempachisi
(D) Gatha

44. Which is the longest railway line of the world?
(A) Trans-Siberian
(B) Trans-Canadian
(C) Orient Railway line
(D) Railway line from London to Paris

45. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat

ANSWERS

1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 D 20 A 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper :(Zoology)

2010-07-10T01:41:00.000+05:30

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper

ZOOLOGY

1. Among the following foods, which is the most appropriate for a desert mammal for the regulation of its water balance ?
(a) Carbohydrate-rich cereals
(b) Oil-rich seeds
(c) Protein-rich pulses
(d) Both carbohydrate and protein-rich foods

2. Consider the following components used in electron transport system that act in a sequential manner:
1. NAD
2. Cytochrome-c
3. Cytochrome-a
4. FAD
What is the correct sequence of the above?
(a) 1—4—2—3
(b) 3-4—2—1
(c)1—2–4—3
(d) 2—1-3-4

3. A person observing prolonged fast will excrete, which one of the following in urine?
(a) Fat
(b) Amino acids
(c) Albumin
(d) Ketone bodies

4. Consider the following statements; in citric acid cycle
1. three hydride ions (hence, six electrons) are transferred to three NAD+ molecules
2. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one NADP +molecule
3. one pair of hydrogen atoms (hence, two electrons) is transferred to one FAD molecule
4. one NADH molecule is utilized in the process
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)1 and 3
(c)1 and 4
(d)2 and 4

5. Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids especially cortisol and cortisone causes
(a) Addison’s disease
(b) adrenogenital syndrome
(c) Cushing’s syndrome
(d) testicular feminization

6.Kidney is involved in the synthesis of
(a) calbindin for calcium absorption
(b) calcitriol for calcium homeostasis
(c) cholecalciferol for bone formation
(d) calcitonin for phosphorus metabolism

7. Which one of the following is correct in ion exchange during
impulse conduction?
(a) Sodium pump stops working
(b) 3 Na+ are pumped in and 2K + pumped out
(c) 3 Na+ are pumped out for every 2K+ pumped in
(d) 1Na+ replaces 1 K+

8. What is the difference between substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation?
(a) Energy released by flow, electrons is utilized in oxidative phosphorylation for the synthesis of ATP but not in
substrate level phosphorylation
(b) ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation but not by substrate level phosphorylation
(c) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs only under non-aerobic condition but not oxidative phosphorylation
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation requires more energy for synthesis of ATP than substrate level phosphorylation

9. During transmission of nerve impulse, the membrane potential inside the cell is
(a) first negative, then positive and back negative
(b) first negative, then positive and remains positive
(c) first positive, then negative and remains negative
(d) first positive, then negative and back positive

10.During phosphogluconate pathway (HMP shunt), the monosaccharides formed along with CO2 are
(a) hexoses
(b) trioses
(c) tetroses
(d) pentoses

11.Long-chain fatty acids penetrate the inner mitochondrial membrane as derivatives of which one of the following?
(a) Carnitine
(b) Coenzyme-A
(c) Sialic acid
(d) Sphingosine

12. Consider the following statements:
Fibrinogen, the precursor of fibrin
1. consists of only primary structure
2. resembles fibrous proteins structurally
3. behaves like globular proteins in their solubility in aqueous
salt solutions
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b)2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

13. Who among the following proposed the alpha-helix structure of proteins?
(a) Crick and Watson
(b) Pauling and Corey
(c) Nirenberg and Khorana
(d) Skoog and Miller

14.Maltose is formed by which glycosidic linkage?
(a) Glucose alpha 1—4 glucose
(b) Galactose alpha 1—4 glucose
(c) Glucose ?eta 1-4 galactose
(d) Glucose ?eta 1—4 glucose

15. Consider the following:
1. Succinate dehydrogenase
2. NADH dehydrogenase
3. Cytochrome oxidase
4. Cytochrome-bc1 complex
What is the correct sequence of the above in the electron
transport chain?
(a) 2—4—1—3
(b) 2—1–4—-3
(c) 3-4—4—2
(d) 3—4—1—2

16. An allosteric inhibitor of enzyme action acts by combining with
(a) the catalytic site of the enzyme
(b) the non-catalytic site of the enzyme
(c) the substrate
(d) Both the substrate and the non-catalytic site of the enzyme

17. Which among the following are the enzymes leading to substrate level phosphorylation during glycolysis?
(a) Pyruvate kinase and enolase
(b) Pyruvate kinase and phosphoglycerokinase
(c) Triose phosphate dehydrogenase and phosphoglycerokinase
(d) Phosphoglycerokinase and phosphofructokinase

18 . The glands found on the edges of eyelids and help to keep the come surface moist are called
(a) ceruminous glands
(b) Zeis glands
(c) sudorific glands
(d) Meibomian glands

19. Consider the following:
1. Diarrhoea
2. Dementia
3. Dermatitis
4. Delinquency
Pellagra is characterized by which of the above?
(a) 1,2and4
(b)1,2and3
(c)2,3and4
(d)1,3and4

20 Which one of the following statement is not correct about metamorphosis in frog?
(a) The forelimbs, which develop under cover of the opercular membrane, break through to the exterior
(b) The middle ear develops in connection with the third pharyngeal pouch
(c) The eyes protrude on the dorsal surface of the head and develop eyelids
(d) The tongue is developed from the floor of the mouth

21. Which of the following changes are involved in retrogressive metamorphosis in ascidians?
1. Increase in the number of pharyngeal stigmata.
2. Complete disappearance of tail.
3. Disappearance of the endostyle and other parts of feeding mechanism.
4. Disappearance of the eye and the otocyst.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and3
(c)1,2and4
(d)2,3and4

22. Consider the following developmental stages of frog:
1.Neurula
2.Blastula
3.Morula
4. Gastrula
Which of the above lack a blastopore?
(a) 1 and4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d)2,3 and 4

23. Consider the following statements:
The upper layer of the area opaca in the blastoderm of the chick gives rise to
1.ectoderm
2. mesoderm
3. extra-embryonic endoderm
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

24. Consider the following statements on extra-embryoniic membranes in chick:
1. Allantois has inner layer of endoderm and outer layer of splanchnic mesoderm
2. Yolk sac has an inner layer of endoderm and outer layer of splanchnic mesoderm.
3. Allantois has inner layer of splanchnic mesoderm and outer layer of endoderm.
4. Yolk sac has inner layer of splanchnic mesod6rm and outer layer of endoderm.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b)2 and 3
(c)3 and 4
(d)1 and 4

25. Consider the following statements:
1: By examining embryos and foetal stages of a vertebrate group, it is impossible to identify the group to which they belong.
2. Structural similarities exist in embryonic and larval stages, which are not apparent in adults.
3. During the development, chick first resembles a fish, then an amphibian and later a reptile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d)1,2 and 3

26. What is common in the scientific contributions of scientists, viz, Francesco Redi, Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur?
(a) Their studies have conclusively proved that higher forms of organisms have not evolved from viruses
(b) They have provided experimental evidences disproving the theory of spontaneous generation of organisms
(e) They have shown that viruses exhibit features of both living organisms and non-hying things
(d) They have shown that most bacteria are heterotrophic in their nutrition

27.The main contributions of Stephen J Gould to the evolutionary theory is the proposition that
(a) most evolutionary changes are principally the outcome of gradual accumulation of small inherited variations
(b) Mendelian mechanism cannot be an important element in directing evolutionary changes
(c) certain character show a sustained tendency to develop along an evolutionary line
(d) most evolutionary changes have consisted of rapid outbursts of speciation alternating with long periods during, which the individual species remained virtually unmodified

Which of the following groups of animals studied by Darwin in his visit to Galapagos led him to advance his theory of evolution?
(a) Flightless birds, giant iguana lizard and cave-dwelling fishes
(b) Finches, echidnas and cave-dwelling newts
(c) Giant land tortoises, armadillos and opossurns
(d) Finches, giant iguana lizard and giant land tortoises

28.Which of the following groups of animals studied by Darwin in his visit to Galapagos led him to advance his theory of evolution?
(a) Flightless birds, giant iguana lizard and cave-dwelling fishes
(b) Finches, echidnas and cave-dwelling newts
(c) Giant land tortoises, armadillos and opossums
(d) Finches, giant iguana lizard and giant land tortoises

29. Consider the following statements:
1. The Neanderthal man was thick- muscular, relatively short with a large nose and strong jaws.
2. The Neanderthal man inhabited sub-Saharan Africa about 50000 years ago.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. The ancestral horse Eohippus of Eocene period shows, which one of the following adaptations in limbs for speed?
(a) 4 digits in forelimbs and 3 digits in hind-limbs
(b) 3 digits in forelimbs and 4 digits in hind-limbs
(c) 4 digits in forelimbs and 4 digits in hind-limbs
(d) 3 digits in forelimbs and 3 digits in hind-limbs

31. Which one of the following is not a fossorial adaptation?
(a) T—shaped episternum
(b) Fusion of cervical, sacral and lumbar vertebrae
(c) Keeled sternum
(d) Highly developed tactile sense

32. ‘Project Musk Deer’ was launched in 1974 in ?
(a) Dachigam national park
(b) Kedarnath national park
(c) Corbett national park
(d) Pine valley national park

33. The Gangetic dolphin belongs to the genus
(a) Platanista
(b) Pelphinus
(c) Balaenoptera
(d) Phocaena

34 Consider the following-statements:
1. The Pygmy Hog (Sus salvanius), the smallest wild pig, is an inhabitant of eastern Himalayan foothills.
2. The Mouse Deer (Tragulus meminna), a tiny ruminant, inhabits the forested areas of southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both I and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2

35. The Eravikulam national park is famous for its
(a) Gaur
(b) Lion-tailed Macaqua
(c) Nilgiri Tahr
(d) Great Indian Bustard

36. Which one of the following is the most productive aquatic ecosystem?
(a) Coral reef ecosystem
(b) Estuarine ecosystem
(c) Riverine ecosystem
(d) Pond ecosystem

37.Consider the following marine organisms:
1.Ammodytes
2.Calanus
3. Clupea
4. Chaetoceros
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the food chain formed by these organisms beginning with the producer?
(a) 2—4—1—3
(b) 4—2—3—1
(c) 4—2—1—3
(d)1 –4—3—2

38. A genetically different population of a species colonizing different habitats is known as
(a) ecophene
(b) ecotype
(c) ecological equivalent
(d) ecad

39.Which one of the following is found in eastern Himalayan sub-region?
(a) Brown goral
(b) Markhor
(c) Ibex
(d) Tahr

40. In warm-humid climate many mammals, birds and insects are darkly coloured than their counterparts living in cool-dry climate. This is an example of
(a) Jordan’s rule
(b) Gloger’s rule
(c) Bergmann’s rule
(d) Allen’s rule

41. Indian wild ass comes under, which Schedule of Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972?
(a) I
(b)II
(c) III
(d) IV

42.Which one of the following kinds of substances contribute significantly in increasing the phosphate concentration during eutrophication?
(a) Detergents
(b) Disinfectants
(c) Organochlorines
(d) Synthetic polymers

43.Methaemoglobinemia is caused due to the presence of in excess of which of the following in Drinking water?
(a) Iron
(b) Nitrate
(e) Phosphate
(d) Copper

44. Which one among the following is the largest wetland?
(a) Pulicat lake
(b) Kaliveli tank
(c) Chilika lake
(d) Vedanthangal

45. Bombykol is a/an
(a) hormone
(b) parasite
(c) pheromone
(d) enzyme

46.Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) All sponges are exclusively marine
(b) Amphiblastula is a landform of certain sponges
(c) Calcareous and siliceous spicules are found in many sponges
(d) All sponges are sessile

47. With reference to coelenterates consider the following
features:
1. Polyp forms.
2. Strongly developed stomodaeum and possessing siphonoglyphs.
3. Well-developed mesoglea containing fibrous connective tissue and amoeboid cells
Which one of the following pairs of coelenterates represents the above features?
(a) Obelia and Aurelia
(b) Physalia and Vellela
(c) Polyorchis and Parpita
(d) Zooanthus and Alcyonium

48. The sting of honey bee is a modified organ of which of the following?
(a) Mandibles
(b) Labellum
(c) Ovipositor
(d) Proboscis

49. Consider the following species of prawn:
1. Penaeus indicus
2. Penaeus monodon
3. Parapenaeopsis stylifera
4. Macrobrachium rosenbergii
Which of the above is/are cultured in freshwater?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d)3 and 4

50. Among the following zooplanktons, which one is not a rotifer?
(a) Brachionus
(b) Asplanchna
(c) Stenocypris
(d) Lecane

:: Answers ::

1 a 2 a 3 d 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 c 8 a 9 a 10 d 11 a 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 b 16 b 17 b 18 c 19 b 20 b 21 d 22 b 23 c 24 a 25 c 26 b 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 a 31 c 32 b 33 a 34 c 35 a 36 a 37 c 38 b 39 a 40 d 41 a 42 a 43 b 44 c 45 c 46 a 47 a 48 c 49 d 50 d

HC notice to UPSC over shortage of prosecutors

2010-07-09T00:24:00.001+05:30

Unhappy with the shortage of public prosecutors in the capital, the Delhi high court on Wednesday asked the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to explain why vacancies remain unfilled.

"For every magistrate court there should be one PP. When one prosecutor has to handle more than three courts, how will he manage?'' a bench of justices Dipak Misra and Manmohan observed while issuing notice to UPSC.

The judges said that a "country governed by rule of law can't tolerate apathetic attitude of lack of PPs in courts'' while hearing a case it took up suo moto on delayed trials in the capital.

Earlier, HC had expressed concern at the "woefully inadequate'' working conditions of PP's employed by the government for courts in Delhi and noted that lack of adequate number of trained PPs is the main reason for the increasing pendency of cases and prisoners languishing in jails as undertrials.

On its part, the government had admitted that more than 50 posts of additional PPs are vacant against the sanctioned strength of 120 and no step has been taken to fill the vacancies.

HC had then asked the principal secretary (home) and the law secretary of Delhi government to visit and inspect the working conditions of PPs in various courts of the city. Deputing the two senior officials, HC had asked the duo to visit the five district court complexes to assess their working condition.

HC had taken suo motu cognizance of a letter from a lawyer, Manish Khanna, informing it of several inmates languishing in jail, facing trial in petty cases, for more than half the period of sentence prescribed under the law. Khanna relied on information extracted through RTI queries in Tihar jail.

Courtesy: The Times of India

UPSC Samanya Adhyan Mukhya Pariksha Prashn Patra

2010-07-08T21:18:00.000+05:30

UPSC Samanya Adhyan Mukhya Pariksha Prashn Patra 1989 - 2009 (In Hindi)

After the success of Concise India 2010, "UPSC Samanya Adhyayan Mukhya Pariksha Prashn Patra 1989 - 2009" is published. It is absolutely free. They just have to pay only Rs. 80 for courier charges.

Payment Option: COD

Features:

Previous Years questions asked by UPSC (1989-2009)
Topicwise Categorisation
FREE Book in Hard Copy (Only 74 Pages)
Only Postal/Courier Charges Applicable.(Rs 80/-)
Limited Copies Available at First Come First serve basis.
Cash on Delivery(COD) is available for this product(put "COD" on the comments field while ordering).

Recruitment of Clerks At Bank of Maharashtra : July 2010 (650 Vacancies)

2010-07-08T00:23:00.001+05:30

Recruitment of Clerks At Bank of Maharashtra : July 2010

650 Vacancies (Clerk)

Pay Scale: Rs. 7200/- TO – Rs.24900-/-

Eligibility:

i) Candidates applying for post in a particular State should be proficient in the language of the State i.e. know to read, write, speak and understand the language.
ii) Candidates should be proficient in the language, know how to read, write, speak and understand the language of the area for which vacancies are advertised and for which he/ she desires to apply.

A candidate must be either :
(i) a citizen of India, OR
(ii) a subject of Nepal, OR
(iii) subject of Bhutan, OR
(iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st January, 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India, OR
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv).& (v) above shall be a person in whose favor a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be interviewed by the Bank but on final selection the offer of appointment may be given only after the production of necessary eligibility certificates issued to him by the Government of India.

Age Limit: Min 18 years & Max 26 years as on 1.6.2010.

Qualification:

For SC/ST/PH/Ex-Servicemen : 12th Std. pass with 55% marks in aggregate. OR a degree from UGC recognized University. Must have secured minimum 55% marks in mathematics at SSC/ 10th STD. Should have Computer Literacy
For OBC/General Candidates: 12th std. Pass with 60 % marks in aggregate. OR a degree from UGC recognized University Must have secured minimum 60% marks in mathematics at SSC/ 10TH STD Should have Computer Literacy

Application Fee:

SC/ ST/ PC/XS Rs. 25/-
OBC / General Rs. 100/-

i) For Candidates applying on line:- Application fee including postage should be paid at any branch of BANK OF MAHARASHTRA for credit of account no. 60046473091 in the name & style of “BOM CLERICAL RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2010”. THE JOURNAL NUMBER issued by the branch of BANK OF MAHARASHTRA, where the fees is paid must be mentioned in online application.

ii) ii.(a) For candidates sending application by Post:- Application fee/postage can be paid at any branch of BANK OF MAHARASHTRA for credit of account no. 60046473091 in the name & style of “BOM CLERICAL RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2010”. THE JOURNAL NUMBER issued by the branch of BANK OF MAHARASHTRA where fees is paid, must be mentioned in the application form . The Candidate must write his/her Name, Date of Birth, & Address on the reverse of the counter foil of pay in slip issued by our branch and a photo copy of the same must accompany the application.

ii.(b) For Candidates sending application by post and desire to pay fees by Demand Draft/Bankers` cheque :- The fees/postage must be paid by a single Demand Draft / Bankers` Cheque issued by a Scheduled Commercial Bank to be drawn in favour of “ BANK OF MAHARASHTRA CLERICAL RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2010” Payable at PUNE. The Candidate must write his/her Name, Date of Birth, & Address on the reverse of the Demand Draft/Bankers` cheque and original DD/Bankers` cheque must accompany the application. The Demand Draft/Banker`s cheque should not be dated before 01-07-2010 and not after 20/07/2010.

Selection Procedure:

(a) Candidates will be screened & those who have scored not less than the prescribed minimum marks in mathematics in SSC / 10th Std. / equivalent examination will be short listed in order of merit and will be called for the interview in the proportion of three times of the number of vacancies declared for that district/UT/State. The interview will be conducted by a committee constituted for the purpose.

(b) Selected candidates will be taken on probation for 6 months period and extendable at the option of the Bank upto further period of 3 months. They will be given induction training/on job training and will be deployed at identified branches in the respective districts/UT/States. Before completing probation, a written test as well as computer proficiency test will be conducted and only those qualifying in the test will be eligible to be considered for confirmation in the services of the Bank subject to satisfactory work performance and conduct during the period of probation vide condition (d) below. Those who do not pass the written test as well as computer proficiency test will not be retained/continued in service.

(d) During the period of probation of six months if the performance and/ or behavior of the trainee/candidate is not found satisfactory, and whose confirmation is not found desirable, will not be confirmed in the service but terminated as per Bipartite provisions.

(e) On successfully passing the written test including Computer Proficiency test & satisfactory performance report, the candidate may be absorbed in the regular employment of the Bank, from prospective date and at a suitable place.

Important Links:

How To Apply:

Candidates can apply on-line through website www.bankofmaharashtra.in. On line application registration link on our website will be open from 01-07-2010 to 20-07-2010. OR for those who desire to send their application by post may send so as to reach us on or before 24-07-2010. The last date for receipt of application from candidates from far flung areas is 31-07-2010.

Mailing Address is:-
Bank of Maharashtra Clerical recruitment Project-2010,
Post Box No. 912, Shivaji Nagar,
Pune-411005.

The guidelines for filling Applications are as under:

Candidate registering on line application should have a valid e-mail ID
Candidates should pay postage/fees at any branch of Bank of Maharashtra and obtain the transaction/journal no. and enter in the online application. And candidates sending application by post must enclose the photo stat copy of the counter foil of the pay in slip of fees/postage paid at any branch of Bank of Maharashtra. The Fees paid by DD/Bankers`chque payable at Pune must accompany the application. Without payment of fees/postage, the application is liable for rejection. Applications received after closing date will not be accepted/registered.
After applying on-line, the registered candidates should obtain a system-generated printout of the registered information, sign at the appropriate place and must submit at the time of interview if called for.
A recent recognizable photograph should be pasted on the Printout/application.

Dates to remember:

Last Date of on-line registration 20-07-2010
Last Date for Receipt of application by Post 24-07-2010

Notes:

1. The Bank takes no responsibility for any delay in receipt or loss in postal transit of any printout or communication.
2. Only candidates willing to serve anywhere in the district/state/UT for which he/she opted should apply.
3. Any resulting dispute arising out of this advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of the Courts situated at Pune.
4. Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification.
5. For candidates applying on line :-A recent, recognizable passport size photograph should be firmly pasted on the printout and should be signed across by the candidate at the time of the interview. They should not send any printout/application unless called it is for.

6. Before applying, the candidate should ensure that he/ she fulfills the eligibility and other norms mentioned in this advertisement. The Bank would be free to reject any application, at any stage of the recruitment process, if the candidate is found ineligible for the post for which he/ she has applied. Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents to be produced for the purpose of the conduct of interview, selection and any other matter relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. No correspondence or personal enquiries shall be entertained by the bank in this behalf.

7. Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC/PC category are required to submit an attested copy of their Caste Certificate/ Certificate of Handicap issued by the Competent Authority as specified below. However, these candidates will have to produce original as well as attested photocopies of the educational certificates, experience certificate and caste certificate, if any, in support of their eligibility at the time of interview, failing which their candidature will be cancelled. In case of candidates belonging to OBC category, the certificate inter-alia must specify that the candidate does not belong to “Creamy Layer” section excluded from the benefits of the reservations for Other Backward Classes in Civil Post & Services under Government of India. OBC certificate should not be more than one year old as on the date. Ex-servicemen shall submit copy of discharge certificate or service certificate along with application and original with photocopy at interview.. 08. Physically Challenged candidates claiming the benefit of reservations/ age relaxation should submit a copy of Medical Certificate as specified in the Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995 in support of their disability.

9. Candidates will have to appear for interview at their own expense.

10. Candidates serving in Government / Public Sector Undertakings should send their applications through proper channel and produce a “No Objection Certificate” from their employer at the time of interview, in absence of which, their candidature may not be considered.

11. Any request for change of address will not be entertained.

12. The Bank takes no responsibility to co-relate any certificate/ remittance sent separately.

13. In case any dispute arises on account of interpretation in version other than English, English version will prevail..

14. The Bank may at its discretion hold re-interview wherever necessary in respect of a center/ venue of a candidate(s).

15. Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/ her being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the Bank. Such appointments will also be subject to the Service & Conduct Rules of the Bank.

Contact Address:

CLICK HERE FOR COMPLETE DETAILS

Courtesy: http://www.bankofmaharashtra.in

MPPSC | Recruitment of Assistant Engineers at PWD Indore

2010-07-08T00:23:00.000+05:30

MPPSC | Recruitment of Assistant Engineers at PWD Indore

Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission, MPPSC
Residency Area, Indore (Madhya Pradesh)
Online Limited, Nirupum Shopping Mall
Secon Floor Ahemadabad, Hoshingabad Road
Bhopal - 422o26,

Advertisement No. 07/Examination/2010.

Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission, MPPSC, Online Recruitment of Assistant Engineer (Civil) in Madhya Pradesh (MP) Public Works Department (PWD). Applications are invited from Indian Nationals for the following vacancy in the MP Government PWD by MPPSC :

Assistant Engineer (Civil) :

No of Post : 40 posts,
Pay Scale : Rs. 15600 to 39100 grade pay Rs. 5400/- per month.
Age Limit : Between 21 to 28 years.
Essential Qualification & Experience : Engineer Gradaute in Civil discipline from a recognised institute/university or Institute of Engineers, Kolkata.

How to apply for above post :
Apply Online only from 10/07/2010 at 12.00 noon to 10/08/2010 upto 12.00 midnight on the websites http://www.mponline.gov.in/

Fees : Rs. 180/- (Rs.90/- for SC/ST/OBC/PWD) plus Rs. 35/- as portal fee, can be paid online by Credit Card/ Debit Card or can be deposite in the prscribed bank account by net banking.

Last Date of Application Submission : Online from 10/07/2010 at 12.00 noon to 10/08/2010 upto 12.00 midnight.

General Ability Unsolved Paper Engineering Services Exam (IES) 2009

2010-06-26T16:56:00.000+05:30

General Ability Unsolved Paper Engineering Services Exam (IES) 2009

PART – A SYNONYMS

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

1. ESCALATE
(a) Rise
(b) Diminish
(c) Roll on
(d) Spiral

2. FLIPPANT
(a) Disrespectful
(b) Polite
(c) Serious
(d) Wrong

3. ALACRITY
(a) Cleanliness
(b) Cleverness
(c) Eagerness
(d) Reluctance

4. BLEMISHES
(a) Qualities
(b) Faults
(c) Bruises
(d) Vices

5. INCESSANT
(a) Uncertain
(b) Ceaseless
(c) Unshaken
(d) Successive

6. CRYPTIC
(a) Elaborate
(b) Obscure
(c) A warning
(d) Cautionary

7. CLEMENCY
(a) Harshness
(b) Mercy
(c) Stiffness
(d) Seriousness

8. ABOMINABLE
(a) Disgusting
(b) Lovable
(c) Abusive
(d) Undisciplined

ANTONYMS

Directions. (For the 8 items which follow) : Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word in capital letters.

9. SCOWL
(a) Scar
(b) Frown
(c) Pimple
(d) Smile

10. EXONERATE
(a) Absolve
(b) Implicate
(c) Exempt
(d) Entangle

11. ARRAIGN
(a) Punish
(b) Pardon
(c) Summon
(d) Indict

12. IMPUDENCE
(a) Tolerance
(b) Modesty
(c) Patience
(d) Prudence

13. NAIVE
(a) Careless
(b) Actful
(c) Troublesome
(d) Unintelligent

14. ABORTIVE
(a) Futile
(b) Unyielding
(c) Effective
(d) Methodical

15. DAMNATION
(a) Retribution
(b) Condemnation
(c) Resurrection
(d) Salvation

16. CARNAL
(a) Kind
(b) Shallow
(c) Gay
(d) Chaste

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (For the 7 items which follow) : (i) In this Section a number of sentences are given. The sentences are labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response . You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

17 Respectfully I beg to state that (a) I am suffering from fever (b) for the past fortnight.(c) No error (d)

18 No sooner had he taken over the charge (a) that the mischief makers (b) started their mischief.(c)No error. (d)

19 When we asked where was his bicycle, (a) he said that it was being repaired, (b)and that it would take at least one week to set it right.(c) No error.(d)

20. The minister never misses an opportunity (a) to tell his audience that (b) many a man have been associated with this mission.(c) No error.(d)

21 Having so long be without proper food and clothing (a) I did not make a (b)favourable impression on my teacher.(c) No error.(d)

22. The good and the evil that flow from scientific research (a) are more often than not(b) indistinguishable at the point of origin.(c) No error.(d)

23 As monsoon failed this year,(a) drinking water will be supplied (b) on alternative days.(c)No error. (d)

Directions (For the 9 items which follow) : In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The. first sentence (S1) and the final sentence (S6) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly

24 - S1 :Health is the most valuable of all earthly possessions.
S6:The man who does not overeat rises early in the morning at ease with himself.
P:To enjoy good health we should refrain from excess in eating.
Q:Otherwise we will not get sound sleep.
R:We should eat only moderately and not devour whatever we get.
S:Without it all other possessions are worthless.
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q S R P
(b) QSPR
(c) S P R Q
(d) SPQR

25 - S1: The nations of the world live under a variety of political systems.
S6: Thus, the idea that popular will is the only criterion of authority is accepted in principle.
P : However ours is a democratic age.
Q : A state of ideal democracy is nowhere to be found.
R : All political systems today claim to be based on popular will.
S : Some are totally undemocratic while some others are democratic.
The proper sequence should be
(a) SQPR
(b) JPQSR
(c) SQRP
(d) PQRS

26 - S1: In the opinion of many, the only way to prevent wars is to set up some sort of government for the whole world.
S6: It was hoped that quarrelling nations who had previously gone to war to settle their disputes, would now go to these organisations instead.
P : The first, which followed the First World War, was called the League of Nations.
0 : Two attempts have already been made in this direction.
R : The second, which followed the Second World War, was called the United Nations.
S : The purpose of both organisations was to provide a sort of law court for. nations to which they could bring their disputes for settlement.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P R S Q
(b) P R Q S
(c) S P R Q
(d) Q P R S

27 - S1: Comrades, you have heard already about the strange dream that I had last night.
S6: It is about this that I wish to speak to you.
P : I have had a long life, I have had much time for thought as I lay alone in my stall, and I think I may say that I understand the nature of life on this earth as well as any animal now living.
Q : But I will come to the dream later.
R : I have something else to say first.
S : I do not think, comrades, that 1 shall be with you for many months longer, and before I die, I feel it is my duty to pass on to you the wisdom that I have acquired.
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q R P S
(b) R S Q P
(c) Q R S P
(d) R S P Q

28. S1: The best kinds of routine exercises are activities such as walking, cycling and swimming.
S6: Their purpose is to strengthen the muscles gradually so that a person can work up to the more demanding exercises.
P : Many people get enough exercise in their ordinary daily routine, while others prefer to follow an organised programme of exercises.
Q : The early exercises should be easy and designed not to tax the strength of the person.
R : These should be chosen with care.
S : For example, if a person is not used to regular physical activity, a certain kind of exercise can cause him great trouble.
The proper sequence should be
(a) PRSQ
(b) RPQS
(c) PRQS
(d) RPSQ

29. S1: Reading is a good habit.
S6: To read is to commune with one’s soul.
P : This joy is absolutely incomparable.
Q : It also provides a nice entertainment.
R : It broadens one’s mind and adds to one’s knowledge.
S : But apart from these, reading has a very special attribute that it fills one with pure joy.
The proper sequence should be
(a) R Q P S
(b) R QS P
(c) Q R P S
(d) Q R S P

30. S1: But Satish was in a great rage.
S6: Nilakanta’s eyes blazed with fierce anger.
P : He had the accused brought before him.
Q : He was certain that Nilakanta had stolen it.
R : You have stolen my ink stand, you thief ! he blurted out.
S : For, several people said they had seen him in the room the night before.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R
(b) Q S P R
(c) P S R Q
(d) Q S R P

31. S1: Ashok tried to read Euclid, but his
desire to study suddenly left him.
S6: Here there were no Indians speaking Hindi.
P : The nurses and governesses addressed them in German and French.
Q : For a while he remained standing at the beach observing people.
R : Boys in sailor suits and girls dressed up like ladies threw crumbs to the swans.
S : He began to stroll back and forth.
The proper sequence should be
(a) S Q R P
(b) PQRS
(c) S Q P R
(d) P Q S R

32. S1: A luminous body is one which emits light of its own.
S6: But from the moon the earth appears like a bright body because the sun’s light falls on it.
P : The earth is also not luminous.
Q : The sun is the nearest luminous body to earth.
R : It is the light reflected from the sun.
S : The moon seems to shed light, but it is not.its own light.
The proper sequence should be
(a) QSPR
(b) PQRS
(c) PQSR
(d) QSRP

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) : In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled (P), (Q), (R) and (S) to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark your Answer

33. to produce a product (P) to let the target market know about it (Q) it is not just enough (R)but it is equally important (S) The correct sequence should be
(a) R P S Q
(b) R P Q S
(c) P R Q S
(d) P R S Q

34. There is who might (P) in this respect (Q) be helpful (R) one person (S) The correct sequence should be
(a) Q R S P
(b) P Q R S
(c) S P R Q
(d) R S P Q

35.to his beloved wife Anjuman Bano (P) he took the name of Shah Jahan’(Q) when Khurram became emperor (R) and gave the title of ‘Mumtaz Mahal (S) The correct sequence should be
(a) QRPS
(b) RQSP
(c) RQPS
(d) QRSP

36. with whom he had a close friendship (P) he and his wife travelled to France (Q)accompanied by his wife’s step sister (R) where they joined Louis(S) The correct sequence should be
(a) R S Q P
(b) Q P S R
(c) Q R P S
(d) R Q S P

37 Finding me absent for the purpose of stealing my watch there(P) a lad of thirteen(Q) the servant of my neighbour(R) entered my bedroom (S)

The correct sequence should be
(a) QRSP
(b) QRPS
(c) RQPS
(d) RQSP

38. Rakesh took the winding track up the mountain (P) of the green valley below (Q)he saw a marvellous sight (R) and once he reached the top (S)

The correct sequence should be
(a) R Q P S
(b) P S R Q
(c) P R S Q
(d) P S Q R

39. Mohan was forced to leave studies (P) to support his family (Q) and take up a job(R)after his father’s death (S) The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) P Q S R
(c) S P R Q
(d) S P Q R

40. sincere and devoted to duty (P) its citizens are (Q) on how much(R) the success and failures of a country depend largely (S) The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) Q R S P
(c) R P S Q
(d) S R P Q

Directions (For the 20 items which follow) : n this Section you have FIVE short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage, and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

PASSAGE I : An astrologer passing through the village called Koopal foretold that Velan would live in a three-storeyed house surrounded by many acres of garden. At this everybody gathered round Velan and made fun of him. For Koopal did not have a more ragged and God-forsaken family than Velans’. His father had mortgaged every bit of property he had and worked with his whole family on other people’s lands in return for a few annas a week. A three-storeyed house for Velan indeed !…. But those who made fun of him would have congratulated the astrologer if they had seen Velan about, thirty or forty years later. He became the sole occupant of “Kumar Baugh” – that palatial house on the outskirts of Malgudi town.

41. The astrologer
(a) visited the village
(b) belonged to the village
(c) happened to pass through the village
(d) was invited by the villagers

42. The village where Velan-lived was
(a) Malgudi
(b) Koopal
(c) Kumar Baugh
(d) None of the above

43. Everyone made fun of the forecast because
(a) Velan was too small to be the owner of the three-storeyed building
(b) Velan was a funny character
(c) In the present situation it was unbelievable
(d) his father had mortgaged the house

44. The villagers would have congratulated the astrologer because
(a) he indeed became the owner of the palatial house
(b) he could change the fate of Velan
(c) his forecast turned out to be a reality
(d) he was a man of great knowledge

PASSAGE II : I had undertaken this perilous swim, not to gain fame or trophies but to prove to the world that Indians are no longer afraid. To the youth of India this triumph would dramatically demonstrate that nothing is impossible for them. All they have to do.is to believe and persevere, and the goal will be theirs ! For it is my firm conviction that unless we individually become adventurous and nationally restless and enterprising, India will not be able to break the bonds of apathy and tradition, whether on the physical or on the intellectual fronts. My Indian Ocean venture was a humble contribution towards this end.

46. The author swam because he wanted
(a) to become famous
(b) to win awards
(c) the young Indians to swim like him
(d) the world to know that the modern Indians are fearless

45. The passage suggests that the author is a
(a) politician
(b) writer
(c) teacher
(d) famous swimmer

47. To become winners, the author says the Indian youth must become
(a) richer
(b) persevering
(c) restless
(d) emotional

48. The expression ‘perilous swim’ means
(a) painful
(b) useless swim
(c) risky swim
(d) interesting swim

PASSAGE III: “Let us laugh,” says,. W. Mathews, “it is the cheapest luxury man enjoys. It stirs up the blood, expands the chest, clears away the cobwebs from the brain and gives the whole system a healthy treatment.” So is it not nice to laugh a lot? It is said, “Laughter is the best medicine.” For those who dislike medicine, sweet or bitter, a good joke that provokes laughter is prescribed. It is nice to have a good laugh but a “guffaw” may sometime lock one’s jaws and so it is suggested that those who enjoy a loud guffaw go slow and subside into a gurgle but the best thing is, as done in Hon’ble courts before Hon’ble Judges, just titter. And finally, I feel that I should smile, laugh heartily (without the predicament of lockjaw) and be able to enjoy all jokes including ones directed at myself. But never making a laughing stock of myself in the process. Let us remember the wise saying, “He is not laughed at that laughs at himself.”

49. It is said that laughter is the best medicine because
(a) it is the cheapest luxury man enjoys
(b) it is available free of cost
(c) it is cheaper whereas medicines in the shops are costly
(d) it provides better treatment than costly medicines

50. The writer says he would never make a laughing stock of himself. It means he should not
(a) let others ridicule him
(b) show disrespect to Judges
(c) laugh, but simply smile at others
(d) let others laugh

51. The writer feels laughter is to be prescribed to. those who
(a) are seriously ill
(b) dislike medicines
(c) cannot buy medicines
(d) do not need medicines

52. By quoting a wise saying in the last line the writer
(a) reiterates the point that laughter is the best medicine for us
(b) guides us about what we should do from being laughed at
(c) cautions us as to how we should conduct ourselves in the Hon’ble Courts
(d) censures those who cannot laugh at themselves

PASSAGE IV: 1 once saw a tigress stalking a month old kid. The ground was very open and the kid saw the tigress while she was still some distance away and started bleating, whereon the tigress gave up her stalk and walked straight up to it. When the tigress had approached to within a few yards, the kid went forward to meet her, and on reaching the tigress stretched out its neck and put up its head to smell her. For the duration of a few heart beats the month-old kid and the queen of the forest stood nose to nose, and then the queen turned and walked off in the direction from which she had come.

53. ‘Stalking’ in this context means
(a) running threateningly
(b) moving .about in circles
(c) targeting a victim
(d) moving quietly without being seen or heard

54. The tigress walked straight up to the kid because
(a) running would frighten the kid
(b) stalking was useless now
(c) the tigress was patient
(d) she was sure of her victim

55. The kid’s behavior indicates that
(a) it was familiar with the sight of tigress
(b) it was attracted by the tigress’s smell
(c) it took the tigress for a playmate
(d) it was not aware of the danger involved

56. The expression ‘for the duration of a few heart beats’ suggests
(a) the few seconds the tigress and the kid spent smelling each other
(b) the fear of the kid
(c) the excitement of the tigress
(d) the anxiety of the watcher

PASSAGE V: The door led to the back of a steep tier of narrow wooden benches rising from the lecturer’s desk like a football stand. Behind the desk were three large blackboards screwed to the walls, which were otherwise panelled with stained perpendicular planks. The roof was lost in a criss-cross of thin iron girders through which half a dozen electric globes were suspended to supplement the thin light that filtered through the windows under the eaves.

57. The passage describes
(a) a stadium
(b) a lecture theatre
(c) an operation theatre
(d) a cinema hall

58. The word “eaves” means
(a) heavy curtains
(b) electric globes
(c) over-hanging part of a sloping roof
(d) the ceiling

59. The writer says “The roof was lost….” because
(a) it was very dark
(b) the roof was covered with soot
(c) the roof was covered with a large number of iron beams
(d) there was a canopy

60. What is the appropriate description of the passage ?
(a) Objective
(b) Rhetorical
(c) Impressionistic
(d) Verbose

PART – B

61. The Presidency of the Security Council of United Nations is alternated every
(a) Month
(b) Six months
(c) Year
(d) Two years

62. Kourou, from where the satellites are launched is in
(a) Costa Rica
(b) French Guyana
(c) El Salvador
(d) West Indies

63. With reference to the standard air pressure at sea level”, 1 atm is equal to
(a) 660 mm mercury
(b) 730 mm mercury
(c) 760 mm mercury
(d) 780 mm mercury

64. When it is 12 noon in Allahabad, the time in Tokyo would be about
(a) 9-30 AM
(b) 3-30 PM
(c) 6-30 PM
(d) 9-30 PM

65. Which among the following are’ the southern-most hills ?
(a) Cardomom hills
(b) Javadi hills
(c) Nallamalai hills
(d) Nilgiri hills

66. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I List II
A. Bhitarkanika 1. Kerala
B. Coondapur 2. Orissa
C. Vembanad 3. Kamataka
D. Coringa 4. Andhra Pradesh

Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 4 1 3 2

67. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Name of oil field Country
(a) Kirkuk Iraq
(b) Burgan : Kuwait
(c) Alqaiq : Iran
(d) Safaniya : Saudi Arabia

68. Which among the following is the western-most city ?
(a) Jhansi
(b) Gwalior
(c) Agra
(d) Delhi

69. Great Barrier Reef is situated along the coast of
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) U.K.
(d) South Africa

70. Which one among the following makes common border with maximum number of other States of India ?
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Rajasthan

71. Which one among the following planets is nearest to the Sun ?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Uranus
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury

72. Equatorial radius of the earth is approximately .
(a) 6380 Km.
(b) 6740 Km.
(c) 7380 Km.
(d) 7740 Km.

73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I (Dam) List II (State)
A. Malaprabha : 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Panam: 2. Gujarat
C. Pochampad :3. Karnataka
D. Upper Penganga:4. Maharashtra

Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 1 2 4

74. Which one among the following is the longest continuous mountain range in the world ?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Andes
(c) The Rocky Mountains
(d) The Alps

75. Durgapur is located on the banks of river
(a) Damodar
(b) Brahmani
(c) Subamarekha
(d) Indravathi

76. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following events occurred earliest ?
(a) Swadeshi movement ‘
(b) Shifting of imperial capital from Calcutta to Delhi
(c) Lucknow Pact
(d) Khilafat movement

77. Who founded the ‘India League’ in London ?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bhikaji Cama
(c) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(d) V. K. Krishna Menon

78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
A. India Wins Freedom: 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Gita Rahasya: 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
C.Discovery of India: 3.Dadabhai Naoroji
D.Poverty and Un-British rule in India 4.Abul Kalam Azad

A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1

79. Which one of the following Indian freedom fighters coined the slogan ‘Jai Hind’ ?
(a) J. L. Nehru
(b) B. G. Tilak
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) S. C. Bose

80. The immediate cause of the’ Swadeshi movement was
(a) Rise in prices of essential commodities
(b) Partition of Bengal
(c) Rising unemployment
(d) Discontent of the peasants

81. During India’s freedom struggle, which one of the following led to the first “All India Hartal” ?
(a) Protest against Rowlatt Act
(b) Protest against Jalianwalabagh incident
(c) Arrest and trial of Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Arrival of Simon Commission

82. During the Indian freedom struggle, who of the following started the newspaper “Bande Matram” ?
(a) Barindra Kumar Ghose
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Devendra Nath Tagore
(d) Surendra Nath Banerjee

83. Who of the following is popularly known as Deshbandhu ?
(a) Aurobindo Ghose
(b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) G. B. Pant
(d) R. M. Lohia

84. Who of the following resigned as Defence Minister in the wake of India- China war in 1962?
(a) Sardar Baldev Singh
(b) Sardar Swaran Singh
(c) V. K. Krishna Menon
(d) Y. B. Chavan

85. With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, who of the following set up the Gyan Prasarak Mandali (Society for Promotion of Knowledge) for the education of adult menfolk ?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bhikaji Cama
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) G. K. Gokhale

86. Who was the President of Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India ?
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Acharya J. B. Kriplani

87. Who of the following was the founder of Khudai Khidmatgars (Red Shirts) movement ?
(a) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(b) Shaukat Ali
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

88. Which one of the following dealt with the subject of local self-government ?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Kothari Commission
(c) Veerappa Moily Committee
(d) Venkatachalam Commission

89. Which of the following is not a Funda mental Right in India ?
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Right to-Constitutional Remedies
(c) Right to property
(d) Cultural and educational rights

90. Which one of the following deals with the Women’s Reservation Bill that seeks to provide for one-third reservation of seats for women in Parliament and State Assemblies ?
(a) 98th Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 100th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 105th Amendment of the Constitution
(d) 108th Amendment of the Constitution

91. Mushrooms are actually
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Lichens
(d) Parasitic moss plants

92. Which of the following-is/are produced as a result of photosynthesis in green plants in addition to carbohydrate ?
(a) Carbon dioxide only
(b) Oxygen only
(c) Water and Carbon dioxide
(d) Water and Oxygen

93. Consider the following plants ;
1. Banana
2. Grape
3. Rose

Which of the above is/are propagated by vegetative methods ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Consider the following :
1. Acetic acid
2. Ascorbic acid
3. Citric acid
4. Folic acid

Which of the above are vitamins ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

95. All enzymes are actually
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fatty acids
(d) Sterols

96. In which one of the following is extra blood stored and is released when shortage occurs ?
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Pancreas
(c) Spleen
(d) Thyroid gland

97 Which one of the following is essential for preventing dental caries ?
(a) Fluorine
(b) Iodine
(c) Iron
(d) Zinc

98. Which one of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan ?
(a) Cholera
(b) Malaria
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Typhoid

99. Which one among the following minerals is essential for the transmission of nerve impulses in the nerve fibres of human body ?
(a) Calcium
(b) Cobalt
(c) Iodine
(d) Sodium

100. From the evolutionary point of view, which one among the following animals is most primitive ?
(a) Leech
(b) Octopus
(c) Snail
(d) Spider

101. Silk is the product of and secreted by
(a) Salivary glands of larval silk moth
(b) Salivary glands of adult silk moth
(c) Secretion from the whole body of adults and pupae of silk moth
(d) Excretion from the whole body of adults and pupae of silk moth

102. Which of the following disease is not transmitted by Aedes aegypti ?
(a) Chikungunya
(b) Dengue
(c) Chicken-pox
(d) Yellow fever

103. In which one of the following places was Asia’s first Export Processing Zone set up?
(a) Cochin
(b) Kandla
(c) Noida
(d) Visakhapatnam

104. “Uruguay Round” is mentioned in the context of the establishment of which one of the following ?
(a) World Bank
(b) IMF
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) WTO

105. As per the Constitution of India, the Legislative Assembly {Vidhan Sabha) of a State consists of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members; but which one of the following States has 32 members ?
(a) Delhi
(b) Goa
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim

106. In the Union Government, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) Union Cabinet

107. Which one of the following is the national animal of India ?
(a) Elephant
(b) Lion
(c) Rhinoceros
(d) Tiger

108. Which one of the following is a member of OPEC ?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Philippines
(c) Laos
(d) Indonesia

109. Under whose direct supervision is the Lok Sabha Secretariat ?
(a) The Cabinet Secretary
(b) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) The Prime Minister of India

110. If the annual Union Budget is not passed by Lok Sabha,
(a) the President of India asks the Finance Minister to resign
(b) the Prime Minister asks the Finance Minister to resign
(c) the Speaker of Lok Sabha asks the Finance Minister to modify it and present it again
(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of his cabinet

111. As per the Constitution of India, how many members can be nominated to the Rajya.Sabha by the President of India?
(a) 10
(b) 1?
(c) 14
(d) 18

112. Which one of the following was acquired by Tata Steel in recent past ?
(a) Algoma Steel Inc.
(b) Corus
(c) Novelis Inc
(d) RE power

113. What is the name of the European Space Agency’s space freighter designed to resupply International Space Station with pressurized cargo, water, air etc. ?
(a) New Horizons
(b) Jules Verne
(c) Endeavour
(d) Cassini

114. In which region is the Daulatbeg Oldi airbase ?
(a) Jammu
(b) Ladakh
(c) Lahaul and Spiti
(d) Rann of Kachchh

115. In the recent past which one of the following claimed to have launched the world’s first plane powered by a hydrogen-cell battery ?
(a) Boeing
(b) Lockheed-Martin
(c) NASA
(d) CERN

116. Larry Page and Sergey Brin are well- known as
(a) Creators of Bluetooth device
(b) Founders of Google
(c) Scientists of human genome
(d) Stem cell researchers

117. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain ?
(a) Diatoms —» Crustaceans —> Herring
(b) Crustaceans —» Diatoms —» Herring
(c) Diatoms —» Herring —» Crustaceans
(d) Crustaceans—» Herring —> Diatoms

118. Which one of the following awards was given to the couple Krishnammal Jagannathan and Sankaralingam Jagannathan recently ?
(a) Ramon Magsaysay Award
(b) Right Livelihood Award
(c) Jnanpith Award
(d) Sahitya Akademi Award

119. For playing which one of the games is Franck Ribery well-known ?
(a) Badminton
(b) Chess
(c) Football
(d) Table tennis

120. Consider the following pairs :
1. Abhijeet Gupta : Chess
2. Gagan Narang : Weight lifting
3. Jeev Milkha Singh : Golf

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Sociology Model Test Paper For UGC NET And Civil Service Exams

2010-06-26T16:03:00.001+05:30

1. A social institution is?

(a) an established procedure that regulates human behavior
(b) a place where social functions are organized
(c) an organization where social positions are determined
(d) an organization that administers social service

2. Which one of the following is not a social institution?
(a) Kinship
(b) School
(e) Education
(d) Prison

3. Who, among the following, has emphasized the positive functions of conflict in society?
(a) Georg Simmel
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Max Weber
(d) Noam Chomsky

4. Which one of the following is an attribute of culture?
(a) Culture is divinely gifted
(b) Culture is socially constructed
(c) Culture is genetically inherited
(d) Culture is environmentally manipulated

5. Mass culture generally refers to
(a) the symbolic products of a group
(b) artistic and literary creations
(c) the cultural traits of a society -
(d) commercial products of little or no aesthetic value

6. Which one of the following is meant by cultural relativism?
(a) There are universal Relative cultural norms that we must follow
(b) One’s view of social institutions is coloured by his cultural perspective
(c) The function and meaning of a trait are relative to its cultural settings
(d) One believes that one’s own culture is relatively superior to that of others

7. Which one of the following statements correctly- defines ‘Ethnocentrism’? -
(a) Judging other culture with the help of cultural ‘Ideal Type’
(b) Judging other species by comparing with human species
(c) Looking at other cultures with a sense of inferiority
(d) Judging other cultures by comparison with one’s own

8. Who, among the following sociologists, popularized the term ‘Primary group’?
(a) Erving Goffman
(b) C.H. Cooley
(c) David Harvey
(d) G H. Mead

9. Consider the following statements:
Reference group theory has generally been used by scholars to understand the process of
1. social mobility among individuals and groups.
2. competition and conflict among individuals and groups.
3. social interaction and symbolic unity.
4. formation of human agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b) 1 and 4
(c)2 and 3
(d)l,2,3 and 4

10. According to Emile Durkheim, ‘‘human agency’ is constrained by
(a) political process
(b) social structure
(c) economic resources
(d) agency of other actors

11. Who among the following, classified religious rites/rituals into positive, negative and piacular?
(a) B. Malinowski
(b) A.R. Radcliffe-Brown
(c) M. Weber
(d) E. Durkheim

12. Which one of the following theories adopts the model of the organism to understand the social system?
(a) Conflict theory
(b) Functionalist theory .
(c) Mode of production theory
(d) Behavioural theory

13. Louis Dumont conceptualized caste in terms of
(a) social differentiation and untouchability
(b) class and unequal power relations
(c) dialectical opposition of ‘pure’ and ‘impure’
(d) functional unity and differentiation

14. Gandhian Satyagraha can be considered as an example of which one of the following Weber’s type of social action?
(a) Instrumental-rational action
(b) Affective action
(c) Value-rational action
(d) Value-neutral action

15. Which one of the following sociologists developed the theory that within the social system roles become institutionalized clusters of normative rights and obligations?.
(a) E. Durkheim
(b) R. Merton
(c) K. Davis
(d) R. Linton

16. A status-set refers to which of the following?
1. The set of positions an individual occupies in a given network of social relations.
2. The set of distinctions an individual eam in his/her life.
3. A set of privileges an officer enjoys in bureaucracy.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a)1 only
(b) l and 3
(c)2 and 3
(d)1,2 and 3

17. Which of the following is not the characteristic of the Jajmani System?
(a) Reciprocal relationship
(b) Hereditary
(c) Goods against services
(d) This relationship between the ‘servicing’ and the ‘served’ castes was short term

18. A social norm is:
(a) what everyone adheres to
(b) an evaluation of the state of affairs as good or bad
(c) a belief in something as good or desirable
(d) is not adhered to by everyone but guides the actions of individuals in social interactions.

19. According to E. Sutherland, which one of the following is referred to as white-collar crime?
(a) Crimes committed by social elites
(b) Crimes such as briber and corruption in industry and business
(c) Crimes which go unreported
(d) Crimes committed by habitual offenders

20. Who, among the following sociologists, viewed crime and deviance as playing a positive role in the functional integration of society?
(a) E. Durkheim
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Auguste Comte
(d) T.H. Marshall

21. According to E. Durkheim, law is the visible symbol of society’s
(a) division of labour
(b) collective consciousness
(c) mechanical solidarity
(d) religious life

22. Who, among the following, identified sensorimotor, pre-operational, concrete-operational and formal operational as stage in the process of socialization?
(a) Jean Piaget -
(b) Erving Goffman
(c) Charles Cooley
(d) G.H. Mead

23. Recognition of the cultuial rights of immigrants in some of the West Europan countries is a good example of
(a) assimilation
(b) isolation
(c) integration
(d) acculturation

24. Which one of the following is not included in the Power Elite by C. Wright Mills?
(a) Political elite
(b) Cultural elite
(c) Military elite
(d) Business elite

25. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of role conflict?
1. A football coach whose daughter is a member of the team.
2. A student going to cinema during class time.
3. A judge listening the case of crime against her son.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2only
(b) l and3 -
(c)1 and 2
(d)1,2 and 3

26. Which one of the following is the prime factor in reference group behaviour?
(a) Membership
(b) Out-group
(c) In-group
(d) Relative deprivation

27. In the theory of culture of poverty
(a) structural conditions are identified causing poverty
(b) exploitation of labour is identified causing poverty
(c) lack of talents and skills are identified as causing poverty
(d) attitudes, beliefs and behaviour individuals or groups are identified causing poverty

28. Relative deprivation is a condition where an individual/a group
(a) has become poorer than before even when he/it is above the poverty line
(b) has fallen below the poverty line due to his/its downward mobility
(c) feels deprived in relation to a group with witch he/it compares himself/itself
(d) feels deprived in relation to his/its own aspirations of material life

29. According to E. Durkheim, the nature of modem law is?
(a) repressive
(b) restitutive
(c) normative
(d) formal -:

30. The essence of secondary group is its
(a) consciousness of kind
(b) degree of performance
(c) face-to-face relationship
(d) impersonality of relationship

31. Which of the following is not an aspect of social structure?
(a) Language
(b) Norms
(c) Roles and statuses
(d) Institutions

32. R. Dahrendorf argued that post-industrial societies are divided on the lines of
(a) class
(b) the exercise of authority
(c) ownership of means of production
(d) democratic Participative models

33. Which one of the following is known as the process by which cultural traits spread from one culturally distinct group to another?
(a) Evolution
(b) Assimilation
(c) Accommodation
(d) Diffusion

34. Embourgeoisiement is:
(a) failure of mobility of working class
(b) automation of industry
(c) reformulation of bourgeois identity
(d) process of creating bourgeois aspirations, style of living among the working class

35. Who has applied ‘pattern variables’ to differentiate between developed and developing societies?
(a) K. Davis
(b) B. Hoselitz
(c) WE. Moore
(d) T. Parsons

36. Directions :The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A) ‘and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to this question using the code given below. -

Assertion (A) Norms and values are fundamental bases of societal make-up.
Reason (R) Only religious institutions teach norms and values.

Code:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, hut R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

37. Consider the following statements
On the basis of the recent studies on the families in India, it can be argued that changes in the family have taken the direction of:
1 making all families small and nucleated.
2. increasing filial dependence of son & on fathers and reducing the scope of the conjugal relationships.
3. weakening family norms and increasing trends towards neolocal residence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1,2and3
(b)2 and 3
(c)l and 2
(d)3 only

38. In Radcliffe-Brown’s terms, the relationship between a man and his mother’s brother in patrilineal society is one of
(a) filiation
(b) complementary fihiation
(c) supplementary filiation
(d) fictional filiation

39. The-term ‘Phratry’ refers to which one of the following?
(a) Grouping of nuclear families in a common household
(b) Followers of a religious sect
(c) A close knit community
(d) Clustering of several clans into exogamous units

40. Consider the following statements:
1. Relationships within patrilineage or matrilineage groups are established and maintained through descent links traced through either or both parents.
2. Affinal kins are related by marriage.
3. The term ‘avuncular’ refers to prominent position of mother’s brother.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c )l and 3
(d)l,2 and 3

41. In bilineal descent
(a) men transmit to sons, while daughters inherit from their mothers
(b) men transmit to daughters and women to their sons
(c) descent is traced in father’s and mother’s line, each for different attributes or types of property
(d) membership is acquired through father or mother and attributes are transmitted equally through both parents

42. Which one of the following correctly defines the term kinship?
(a) A socially acknowledged and approved sexual union between two individuals
(b) A socially recognized connection between individuals established either through marriage or through blood relatives
(c) A group of persons directly linked by kin connections, the adult members of which assume responsibility for caring the children
(d) A group of people who claim a genealogical connection of descent through male or female line

Directions (Q. 43-45): The following three (3) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A) ‘and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.

Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and Rare individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

43. Assertion (A) : In the opinion of Irawati Karve, caste is an extended kin-group.
Reason (R) : Members of the same caste believe that they have descended from a common ancestor.

44. Assertion (A): Emphasis on conjugal ties is supposed to weaken the stability of the joint family.
Reason (R) : The father-son relationship and the relationship between brothers are more crucial for the joint family system than the conjugal relationship.

45. Assertion (A) Monogamy is the most common form of marriage in the contemporary society.
Reason (R) Status of women is likely to enhance in a monogamous union

46. The theory of social stratification offered by K. Davis W. Moore is known as
(a) Multi-dimensional
(b) Conflict theory
(c) Functional theory
(d) Structuralist theory

47. Which one of the following theory/model states that the system of rewards leads to a system of stratification?
(a) Conflict theory
(b) Functional theory
(c) Weberian model
(d) Roles-status model

48. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The theory of stratification in the form of ‘class’, of ‘status’ and ‘party’ was given by M. Weber
(b) Karl Marx advocated that super ordinate authority in a society is control the subordinates by issuing orders, putting demands, giving warnings and imposing prohibition
(c)R Dahrendorf holds the view that stratification exists in each and every human society of the world and also it is a functional necessity
(d) R. Merton was the forerunner in propounding the conflict perspective for explaining social stratification

49. Consider the following statements:
1. Social stratification is ubiquitous.
2. Caste and class are examples of social stratification.
3. Sanskritization takes place outside the framework of caste system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c)l and 2
(d)l,2 and 3

50. Which one of the following is correct with regard to the difference between a proletariat and a slave?
(a) Proletariat is a free Wage laborer while slave is not
(b) Proletariat is urban while slave is rural
(c) Proletariat owns some land while slave does not
(d) There is no difference between the two

::Answers::

1 a 2 d 3 a 4 b 5 d 6 c 7 c 8 b 9 d 10 b 11 d 12 b 13 c 14 c 15 b 16 a 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 a 21 a 22 a 23 c 24 b 25 b 26 d 27 d 28 c 29 b 30 d 31 a 32 b 33 d 34 d 35 d 36 c 37 d 38 b 39 d 40 d 41 d 42 b 43 a 44 a 45 a 46 c 47 b 48 a 49 c 50 a

Saidai Duraisamy’s Manidha Naeyam I.A.S & I.P.S Free Coaching centre

2010-06-26T14:02:00.000+05:30

Saidai Duraisamy’s Manidha Naeyam I.A.S & I.P.S Free Coaching centre

Saidai Duraisamy’s Manidha Naeyam I.A.S & I.P.S Free Coaching centre:
Manidha Naeyam IAS & IPS Free Coaching Centre, run by Manidhaneyam Charitable Trust, Chennai. Trust was founded by Social Thinker & Humanist Thiru. Saidai Sa.Duraisamy.

Register Here
Online Registration

UPSC Prelims Answer Keys 2010

B & C

TNPSC Group I 2010 Answer Keys

C Series

TNPSC Group II 2010 Answer Keys

Admission for phase II coaching to start at MANUU-CSE Academy

2010-06-24T16:54:00.000+05:30

Admission for phase II coaching to start at MANUU-CSE Academy

Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Civil Services Examination Academy for minority students & women has announced phase II coaching programme for Mains & Prelims. The programme is scheduled to start in August 2010. The notifications & applications will be available from June 15, 2010. According to Prof. Amina Kishore, Professor In charge, the Academy has successfully completed phase I of coaching for students who appeared in the recently conducted Preliminary Exams. MANUU is one among the four Universities selected by the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development all over the India to start CSE – Coaching Academy.

MANUU Academy has been assigned the responsibility to impart coaching to minorities & women.

Interested candidates may enquire at : 040 – 23008323, 23008326, 23008304,
Contact by email at : manuu.ias.acad@gmail.com
Website: http://www.manuu.ac.in

Work hard for IAS, IPS test, says Moily

2010-06-24T16:53:00.000+05:30

Union Minister for Law and Justice M Veerappa Moily on Sunday felicitated candidates, who cracked All India Civil Services examination and Karnataka Administrative Service examination, at JSS Training Institute for Competitive Examinations (JSSTICE) here.

He said only a few candidates get selected to the IAS, IFS and IPS postings from Karnataka compared to other south Indian states. He lauded the steps taken by the JSSTICE for providing training for candidates opting of for civil service examination.

He said hard work was required to pass All India Civil Service examination, which has become highly competitive. Mr Moily said personal prejudices of higher officials should not become criteria for promotions for lower rank officials. Loyalty to the rule of law and commitment to the public service would only ensure inclusive growth, he said.

Moily underlined the vital role of IAS officers in helping curb Naxalism by ensuring implementation of central schemes and equitable development.IAS officers have a role to play in ensuring that the schemes targeted at the underprivileged are implemented at the grassroot level, Moily said. "But there have been shortcomings in this regard", he added.

The minister said it would require better commitment from IAS officers to defuse the Naxal activity by ensuring equitable development of all areas. Implementation of such schemes would help in bringing down Naxalism, he said.

Read more..
Courtesy: Mangalorean.com

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Child development Project Officer

2010-06-24T16:52:00.000+05:30

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Child Development Project Officer

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission,
No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006
Website : http://www.tnpsc.gov.in

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission(TNPSC) Is Recruiting Post Graduate Degree in Home Science or Psychology / Degree in Nutrition / Home Science Candidates In Chennai 2010

Advertisement No:242

Tamil Nadu General Service (Service Code : 035):

Assistant Director-Posts-2

Pay Scale: Rs.15600-39100 + GP Rs.5400/-
Age: Min 18 years & Max 30 years as on 01.07.2010
Qualification: Must possess a Post Graduate Degree in Home Science or Psychology or Sociology or Child Development or Food and Nutrition or Social Work or Rehabilitation Science.

Child Development Project Officer-Posts-30

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800 + GP Rs.4500/-
Age: Min 18 years & Max 30 years as on 01.07.2010
Qualification: Must possess a Degree in Nutrition / Home Science or a degree with a Post Graduate Diploma in Rural Services awarded by the Gandhigram University. Persons claiming equivalence of qualification should enclose evidences for such claims.

Examination Centre:
Examination will be held in Chennai Centre only ( Centre Code -001). Candidates should appear for the examination on their own expenses. The Commission reserves the right to increase the number of examination centres and to reallot the candidates.

Selection:
Selection will be made in two successive stages i.e.,
(i) Written Examination and
(ii) Oral Test in the shape of an interview.

Examination Fee:
Rs.125/- (Rupees One Hundred and twenty five only)

How to Apply: a) OMR application form along with an Information Brochure, Instructions, etc., to candidates’ and an envelope for sending application can be obtained from any one of the HEAD POST OFFICES or selected Sub-Post Offices (284 Nos.) in Tamil Nadu / Puducherry on payment of Rs 30/-. (The list of Post Offices is available at the Commissions Website.
b) OMR application forms can also be obtained in person from the sales counter of the office of the Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1, Greams Road, Chennai- 600 006, on all working days till the closing date upto 5.00 p.m. (excluding lunch interval between 1.30 and 2.00 p.m.) on cash payment of Rs.30/-. Application forms will not be supplied to the candidates by Post.
c). Candidates should use only the OMR application form. No other typed or printed or Xeroxed / Photocopy of the application form will be accepted and such application, if any received, will be summarily rejected.
d) Candidates can also avail of the facility of applying Online on the Commission’s Website. Candidates applying Online should possess and keep ready Postal Receipt for Rs.155/- (i.e. Application fee Rs.30/- and Examination fee Rs. 125/-) and Candidates claiming fee exemption should possess and keep ready Postal Receipt for Rs.30/- towards the application fee before registering Online. The Postal Receipt obtained for the payment of
Application Fee/ Examination Fee should be pasted in the space provided in the application form. Candidates applying Online should send the applications (i.e. The printout generated from the website and signed by the candidate) with the Postal Receipt along with attested copies of required Certificates so as to reach the Commission’s office on or before the last date for receipt of applications, failing which his/her application will be rejected. The facility of applying Online will be closed at 5.45.p.m on 18-07-2010 . Enclosures To Be Sent Along With The Application:Candidates should enclose attested copies of all certificates as mentioned in para 15 of the Commission’s ‘Instructions, etc. to candidates’ and item 26 under part–II of Information Brochure along with a Postal Receipt to the value of Rs.125/- (Rupees One Hundred and twenty five only) pasted in the column provided in the application, unless exemption of fee is claimed. Original Certificates should not be sent. Those applying Online may please refer para 12 D of this Notification/Advertisement. Controller of Examinations, Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006 well in advance so as to reach the Commission’s Office before 5.45 p.m. on 20-07-2010..

Last Date To Apply: 5.45 p.m. on 20-07-2010

Notes:
A. The Rule of reservation of appointments is applicable to these posts separately and the distribution of the vacancies will be as per the rule in force.
B. The number of vacancies advertised is only approximate and is liable to modification with reference to vacancy position at any time before finalisation of selection for Oral Test or selection for appointment, as the case may be.
C. Differently abled persons should produce before their appointment a Certificate of Physical Fitness from a Medical Board to the effect that her handicap will not render her incapable of efficiently discharging the duties attached to the post for which she has been selected. Candidates selected for appointment to the posts will be required to produce a certificate of physical fitness in the form prescribed for “Executive Posts”. The Standard of Vision prescribed for the posts is ‘Standard III or better’ . Candidates with defective vision should produce eye fitness certificate from qualified eye specialist.
D. 3% reservation for Differently abled persons, will apply only to the post of Child Development Project Officer.
E. Reservation of appointments to “Destitute Widows” will not apply to this recruitment.
F. Any claim relating to the selection (not related to candidature or / and claims made in the application) should be received within 90 days from the date of announcement of results. Claims received thereafter will receive no attention.
G. Even after filling up of the posts reserved for SC Arunthathiyars on preferential basis, if more number of qualified Arunthathiyars are available, they shall be entitled to compete with the Scheduled Castes other than Arunthathiyars in the inter-se merit among them and if any posts reserved for Arunthathiyars remain unfilled for want of adequate number of qualified candidates, it shall be filled up by Scheduled Castes other than Arunthathiyars.

Engineering Sservices Examination 2010

Contact Address:
Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission,
No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Veterinary Assistant Surgeon

2010-06-24T16:50:00.000+05:30

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Veterinary Assistant Surgeon

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission,
No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006
Website : http://www.tnpsc.gov.in

Job Recruitment By Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (TNPSC) In 2010

Advertisement No:243

Applications are invited upto 5.45 p.m on 20-07-2010 for direct recruitment to the following post in the Mobile Veterinary Unit in the Dairy Development Department in the Tamil Nadu General Service (Service Code 035):

Veterinary Assistant Surgeon-Posts-7

Pay Scale: Rs.9300-34800 + GP Rs.4700/-
Age: Max 30 years as on 01.07.2010
Qualification:
(i) A Degree in Veterinary Science of any University or Institution recognized by the University Grants Commission for the purpose of its grant; AND
(ii) Must be a Registered Veterinary practitioner under the Indian Veterinary Council Act 1984 (Central Act 52 of 1984)

Centre of Examination:
Examination will be held at Chennai Centre only Note: Candidates should appear for the examination on their own expenses. The Commission reserves the right to increase the number of examination centres and to re-allot the candidates.

Selection:
Selection will be made in two successive stages i.e.,
(i) Written Examination and
(ii) Oral Test in the shape of an interview. (For further details please refer paragraph 22(b) of the ‘Instructions, etc. to candidates’).

Examination Fee:
Rs.125/- (Rupees One Hundred and twenty five only)

How To Apply:
a) OMR application form along with an Information Brochure, Instructions, etc., to candidates’ and an envelope for sending application can be obtained from any one of the HEAD POST OFFICES or selected Sub-Post Offices (284 Nos.) in Tamil Nadu / Puducherry on payment of Rs 30/-. (The list of Post Offices is available at the Commissions Website.
b) OMR application forms can also be obtained in person from the sales counter of the office of the Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1, Greams Road, Chennai-600 006, on all working days till the closing date upto 5.00 p.m. (excluding lunch interval between 1.30 and 2.00 p.m.) on cash payment of Rs.30/-. Application forms will not be supplied to the candidates by Post.
c). Candidates should use only the OMR application form. No other typed or printed or Xeroxed / Photocopy of the application form will be accepted and such application, if any received, will be summarily rejected.
d) Candidates can also avail of the facility of applying Online on the Commission’s Website. Candidates applying Online should possess and keep ready Postal Receipt for Rs.155/- (i.e. Application fee Rs.30/- and Examination fee Rs. 125/-) and Candidates claiming fee exemption should possess and keep ready Postal Receipt for Rs.30/- towards the application fee before registering Online. The Postal Receipt obtained for the payment of Application Fee/ Examination Fee should be pasted in the space provided in the application form. Candidates applying Online should send the applications (i.e. The printout generated from the website and signed by the candidate) with the Postal Receipt along with attested copies of required Certificates so as to reach the Controller of Examinations, Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission, No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006 well in advance so as to reach the Commission’s Office before 5.45 p.m. on 20-07-2010 failing which his/her application will be rejected. The facility of applying Online will be closed at 5.45.p.m on 18-07-2010 . (for details please refer para 1 of the Commission’s ‘Instructions etc. to candidates.’
Enclosures To Be Sent With The Application:
(i) Evidence of qualification (B.V.Sc. degree/Provisional Certificate). (Mark sheet or some other certificates will not be accepted as complete evidence for qualification.
(ii) Evidence for being a Registered Veterinary Practitioner

Last Date To Apply: 20.7.2010 till 5:45 pm

Date & Time of Written Examination: 10-10-2010 from 10.00 A.M. to 1.00 P.M.

Contact Address:
Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission,
No.1, Greams Road, Chennai – 600 006

IAS Topper's Success Mantras

2010-06-24T16:48:00.000+05:30

Dr Shah Faesal, a Kashmiri whose father was murdered by terrorists, made history recently when he topped the UPSC civil services exam. He shared his insights with Rediff.com At 27, Dr Shah Faesal is the first Kashmiri native to have topped the Union Public Service Commission's civil services examination. Faesal acknowledges that he has become an icon for Kashmiri youth, but says he is not entirely comfortable with this sudden adulation. Having lost his father to terrorists, the success has brought happier moments for Faesal and his family. Between travelling across the country and preparing for his year-long training before he is inducted into the Indian Administrative Service, Faesal tells what his success means to the people of Kashmir and why the rest of India must face up to the issues there.

Are you getting used to the limelight?
(Smiles) Yes! Initially it was a catastrophe trying to cope with the rush of people. But now I am getting used to it!

Does your being from Kashmir help because now people acknowledge the fact that it is a state that has potential?
These are popular perceptions. Whenever popular perceptions break it becomes news. Never has there been a topper from Kashmir so yes, it does significantly lend weight to my selection.

How have the people in your neighbourhood reacted?
Oh, the response has been unprecedented! The youth have found a new role model and an icon.

Are you comfortable with that status?
No, I don't like being cast into being a demi-god because if people put you on a pedestal today they may also nail you if you fail to meet their expectations.

How are you coping with these expectations and working towards meeting them?
Now that I have got a platform, I am speaking out not just about my achievements and myself but also spelling out the concerns of the youth in the state.

What are the concerns of youth in Kashmir?
The youth there has a lot of potential and talent and the willingness to work hard. They seek opportunities and a safe space to realise their potential and someone to trust them. The curtain of suspicion that lies between you (the rest of India) and us needs to be removed.

The general perception is that many Kashmiri youth do not consider themselves part of the national mainstream. Is that the case?
It is all about perception. Since you do not have a sense of belonging and relation with and no information about the people in Kashmir the image you carry is that it is a tourist spot. You need to see that there is human tragedy and pain in the region. Identify with that. Own the pain.

Despite having a strong background in science, why did you choose Urdu as one of your optional subjects?
The intention was to dispel the myth about Urdu being a downtrodden and a neglected language. I wanted to prove that Urdu too can fetch you laurels.

Was that your idea in appearing for the UPSC too? To break certain myths?
Yes. The fact that there haven't been many people from the Kashmir province to appear for the UPSC in the last 15 years was a motivating factor. I wanted to dispel the myth that we are incompetent people and the profiling that goes on...

How do you plan to reach out to the people of Kashmir if you get the Jammu and Kashmircadre?
First, I'd like to ensure safe space to the youth. Besides this, my endeavour would be to bring about more connect and communication between the young people in Kashmir and the government so their grievances can be addressed.

Read more..
Courtsy: getahead.rediff.com

UPSC Examination 2011, UPSC Syllabus, UPSC Notification 2011 | UPSC Result

Special Class Railway Apprentices (SCRA) Exam, 2011

SCRA

CSAT Syllabus

UPSC Aptitude Test Syllabus

Combined Medical Services (CMS) Exam

CMS Exam 2011

Frontline Magazine Download : August 14 - 27, 2010

Staff Selection Commission Recruitment August 2010

ADVERTISEMENT NO. ER-02/2010 FILE NO. 11/1/2009-RECTT

1. Scientific Assistant-I Number of vacancies : 01

2. Senior Scientific Assistant-III Number of vacancies : 07

3. Scientific Officer-I Number of vacancies : 02

4. Senior Library and Information Assistant Number of vacancies : 01

Free:

SELECTION PROCEDURES:

CLICK HERE FOR COMPLETE DETAILS

Download Frontline Magazine Dated : July 17 - 30

Teachers and Librarian Job Vacancies in Delhi Subordinate SSB

Teachers and Librarian Job Vacancies in Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board : 2010

Combined Examination for the Various Posts of Librarian

UPSC Mains Online Test Series

UPSC Mains 2010 : Online Test Series

General Studies Test Series

TEST SERIES SCHEDULE FOR GENERAL STUDIES:

General Studies Test Series Part - 1

Indian Polity

Social National Issues.

Science And Technology

Indian Geography

Indian Economy.

International

Public Administration Test Series

Geography Test Series

UPSC | Advertisement No. 13/2010

Aspirants Times Magazine

Download Free Digital Copy of 'Aspirants Times' Magazine Vol.16 (JUNE 2010)

Feel free to send it to friends, print it or distribute without modifications.

If you face any difficulties in download, please Contact Us

CDAC Noida | Recruitment of Contract Engineers

CDAC Noida | Recruitment of Contract Engineers

BEL Probationary Engineers (PE) General Aptitude Solved Test Paper

ANSWERS

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper :(Zoology)

R.A.S. Solved Model Practice Test Paper

ZOOLOGY

:: Answers ::

HC notice to UPSC over shortage of prosecutors

UPSC Samanya Adhyan Mukhya Pariksha Prashn Patra

UPSC Samanya Adhyan Mukhya Pariksha Prashn Patra 1989 - 2009 (In Hindi)

Recruitment of Clerks At Bank of Maharashtra : July 2010 (650 Vacancies)

Recruitment of Clerks At Bank of Maharashtra : July 2010

650 Vacancies (Clerk)

Eligibility:

Qualification:

Application Fee:

Selection Procedure:

Important Links:

How To Apply:

Dates to remember:

Notes:

CLICK HERE FOR COMPLETE DETAILS

MPPSC | Recruitment of Assistant Engineers at PWD Indore

MPPSC | Recruitment of Assistant Engineers at PWD Indore

General Ability Unsolved Paper Engineering Services Exam (IES) 2009

General Ability Unsolved Paper Engineering Services Exam (IES) 2009

PART – A SYNONYMS

ANTONYMS

SPOTTING ERRORS

PART – B

Sociology Model Test Paper For UGC NET And Civil Service Exams

::Answers::

Saidai Duraisamy’s Manidha Naeyam I.A.S & I.P.S Free Coaching centre

Saidai Duraisamy’s Manidha Naeyam I.A.S & I.P.S Free Coaching centre

Register Here Online Registration

Admission for phase II coaching to start at MANUU-CSE Academy

Admission for phase II coaching to start at MANUU-CSE Academy

Work hard for IAS, IPS test, says Moily

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Child development Project Officer

TNPSC Recruitment 2010 | Recruitment of Child Development Project Officer

1. Scientific Assistant-I
Number of vacancies : 01

2. Senior Scientific Assistant-III
Number of vacancies : 07

3. Scientific Officer-I
Number of vacancies : 02

4. Senior Library and Information Assistant
Number of vacancies : 01

Download Free Digital Copy of 'Aspirants Times' Magazine Vol.16
(JUNE 2010)

Register Here
Online Registration